Wednesday, 15 March 2023 06:02

Social Studies & Religious Education Questions and Answers - Class 8 Mid Term Exams Term 1 2023 Set 4

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Study the map of Sata area and use it to answer questions 1 to 7.

  1. The climate of the southern part of Sata area can be described as A
    1. cool and dry.
    2. hot and wet.
    3. hot and dry.
    4. cool and wet.
  2. The approximate area in square kilometres of Labu town is
    1. 30km2
    2. 25km2
    3. 36km2
    4. 28km2
  3. The main economic activity in most parts of Sata area is
    1. crop farming.
    2. livestock keeping.
    3. trading.
    4. lumbering.
  4. A forest was established in the southern part of Sata area mainly to
    1. provide timber in the area.
    2. attract rainfall in the area.
    3. make the landscape beautiful.
    4. protect sources of rivers.
  5. Which one of the following areas in Sata area is at the lowest point above sea level
    1. Labu town.
    2. Tea farms.
    3. Cattle dip.
    4. Forest.
  6. Land in Sata area generally rises from
    1. north.
    2. east.
    3. south.
    4. west.
  7. The area covered by the map is a
    1. county.
    2. location.
    3. division.
    4. district.
  8. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the continent of Africa? It
    1. has fifty five continental countries. 
    2. is crossed by the three main tropics.
    3. lies in the northern hemisphere. 
    4. is the largest continent.
  9. The following are statements about a type of marriage:
    1. A man can marry more than one wife.
    2. A marriage certificate is issued. 
    3. It is conducted by a government official.
      The type of marriage described above is
      1. Christian marriage. 
      2. Islamic marriage. 
      3. civil marriage.
      4. customary marriage.
  10. Which one of the following lakes is correctly matched with its formation? Lake
    1. Chad - deposition.
    2. Rukwa - downwarping.
    3. Kivu - volcanicity.
    4. Gambi - faulting.
  11. Which one of the following is the main tourist attraction feature around Malindi town?
    1. High class hotels.
    2. Vasco da Gama pillar.
    3. Sandy beaches.
    4. Marine wildlife.
  12. Nabongo Mumia collaborated with the British because
    1. he had been employed by the British. 
    2. he wanted protection against the Nandi. 
    3. the British were building a railway line. 
    4. he feared the Arabs.
  13. Below are communities that settled in Eastern Africa:
    1. Abagusii
    2. Taita
    3. Chagga
      Which one of the following statements about the communities listed above is true?b They
      1. settled in highland regions.
      2. were ruled by kings.
      3. practised pastoralism.
      4. were long distance traders.
  14. The mountains on the floor of the Rift Valley were formed through
    1. faulting.
    2. erosion.
    3. folding.
    4. volcanicity.
  15. Which one of the following minerals is correctly matched with the place where it is mined in Kenya?
           Mineral                    Place   
    1. Fluorspar                 Ngomeni
    2. Limestone                Athi river
    3. Diatomite                 Kimwarer
    4. Salt                          Kariandusi
  16. Ludwig Krapf came to Eastern Africa in 1844 to
    1. explore the interior.
    2. find the source of river Nile.
    3. spread christianity
    4. find a sea route to India.
  17. Which one of the following was a recreational activity among communities in the pre-colonial period?
    1. Farming.
    2. Herding.
    3. Hunting
    4. Wrestling.
  18. The leeward side of a mountain receives low rainfall because it
    1. lies at a low altitude.
    2. is far from large water bodies. 
    3. has little vegetation cover.
    4. is sheltered from warm moist winds.
  19. Which one of the following combinations consists of trees that grow in the forests of Swaziland?
    1. Pine and eucalyptus.
    2. Podo and mahogany.
    3. Mvule and oak.
    4. Camphor and sapele.
  20. When the Ababukusu people fought the British in Kenya, they were led by 
    1. Waiyaki wa Hinga.
    2. Mekatilili wa Menza.
    3. Mukite wa Nameme.
    4. Koitalel arap Samoei.
  21. The diagram below shows the formation of a mountain.
    Which one of the following mountains was formed through the above process? 
    1. Danakil Alps.
    2. Ruwenzori mountains.
    3. Usambara moutains
    4. Atlas mountains.
  22. Which one of the following resulted due to the settlement of Arabs along the coast of Eastern Africa?
    1. Introduction of cloves.
    2. Establishment of mission stations.
    3. Building of railway lines.
    4. Abolition of slave trade.
  23. People who live near swamps are likely to suffer from
    1. frequent droughts.
    2. seasonal flooding.
    3. water-borne diseases.
    4. acute soil erosion.
  24. Assimilated Africans in Senegal during the French colonial period were allowed to
    1. work and live in France.
    2. marry more than one wife.
    3. practise traditional customs.
    4. buy goods at reduced prices.
  25. Pastoral farmers can be supported by the government through
    1. getting loans to buy more livestock. 
    2. fencing grazing lands.
    3. drilling boreholes in pastoral areas. 
    4. exempting them from taxes.
  26. Bananas in Uganda are intercropped with
    1. tea.
    2. coffee.
    3. wheat.
    4. cotton.
  27. The best way of promoting peace among communities in Kenya is by 
    1. supporting intermarriage.
    2. establishing national schools.
    3. promoting the use of Kiswahili.
    4. respecting the rights of other people.
  28. Rapid population increase in Africa has been caused by
    1. introduction of family planning methods. 
    2. rapid expansion of towns.
    3. improvement in healthcare.
    4. increase of jobs in urban centres.
  29. Which one of the following groups is made up of rivers that have deltas?
    1. Niger, Nile, Tana.
    2. Senegal, Congo, Athi.
    3. Ruvuma, Zambezi, Orange.
    4. Volta, Sanaga, Gambia.

Use the map of Kenya below to answer questions 30 to 33.  


  1. The main benefit of the river project marked N is that it
    1. has stopped flooding along river Tana.
    2. produces rice for export.
    3. has created an inland waterway.
    4. is a source of electricity.
  2. The main reason for the migration of the communities that used the route marked T was that they
    1. were looking for goods to trade.
    2. were looking for better pastures. 
    3. were escaping conflicts.
    4. wanted iron for tool making.
  3. The game park marked X is
    1. Marsabit.
    2. Sibiloi.
    3. Nasolot.
    4. Samburu.
  4. The shaded area marked Z has a high population due to the
    1. presence of fish in lake Victoria.
    2. flat relief of the land.
    3. presence of large towns.
    4. availability of high rainfall.
  5. Three of the following are causes of lawlessness in the society. Which one is not?
    1. Respecting other people's opinions. 
    2. Rejection of election results.
    3. High rate of unemployment.
    4. Misuse of drugs.
  6. The Southern Africa Development Community (SADC) was formed to 
    1. promote the use of a common language.
    2. prevent the spread of deserts.
    3. promote trade among member states.
    4. establish a common trading currency. 
  7. Petroleum products are transported by pipeline from Mombasa to other towns in Kenya because
    1. it costs less than other forms of transport.
    2. there is an oil pipeline from Mombasa.
    3. it reduces accidents on the roads.
    4. it creates employment in the country.
  8. Who among the following is a member of a county assembly?
    1. County commissioner.
    2. Speaker.
    3. Governor.
    4. Senator.
  9. Which one of the following combinations is made up of cold currents only?
    1. Guinea and Somali.
    2. Sumali and Canary.
    3. Benguela and Aguhlas.
    4. Canary and Benguela.
  10. The collaboration of the Maasai and the British during the colonial period in Kenya led to
    1. settlement of Europeans in Maasai land. 
    2. opening of schools in Maasai land.
    3. construction of a railway line.
    4. employment of Maasai youth in the army.
  11. Which one of the following groups is made up of Bantu communities of Central Africa? A
    1. Venda, Zulu, Xhosa.
    2. Chagga, Banyoro, Taita. 
    3. Bemba, Bakongo, Balunda.
    4. Agikuyu, Aembu, Ameru.
  12. Televisions are not commonly used in rural areas in Kenya mainly because
    1. television sets are expensive."
    2. most rural areas do not have electricity.
    3. most people in rural areas are illiterate. 
    4. rural areas have poor roads.
  13. Acacia and baobab trees are commonly found in areas with
    1. savannah vegetation. 
    2. desert vegetation.
    3. moutain vegetation.
    4. temperate vegetation.
  14. The diagram below represents a weather instrument.
    The part marked K contains
    1. mercury.
    2. kerosene.
    3. water.
    4. alcohol.
  15. Which one of the following is the main problem facing inland fishing in Africa?
    1. Competition from foreign fishing vessels. 
    2. Water plants growing in lakes.
    3. Overfishing.
    4. Inadequate market for fish.
  16. Which one of the following places in Eastern Africa is correctly matched with the crop grown there?
           Place              Crop    
    1. Kaffa        -     bananas
    2. Mbeya     -      coffee
    3. Kenana    -     sugarcane
    4. Kigezi      -      sisal
  17. A school motto is important because it
    1. encourage leamers to work hard.
    2. makes learners pass school tests. 
    3. shows the direction to a school.
    4. outlines the rules of a school.
  18. Nelson Mandela promoted unity in South Africa by
    1. fighting against apartheid.
    2. forming African National Congress (ANC)
    3. leading South Africa to independence.
    4. appointing different races in the government.
  19. Pineapple canning in Thika is an example of
    1. a processing industry.
    2. an assembling industry. 
    3. a manufacturing industry. 
    4. a service industry.
  20. Low temperatures in some places along the equator are influenced by
    1. high rainfall. 
    2. dense forests. 
    3. high altitude.
    4. strong winds.
  21. Below are problems found in urban centres:
    1. Decay of moral values.
    2. Traffic congestion on roads.
    3. High rates of unemployment.
    4. Increase in crime.
      Which combination consists of social problems?
      1. i and ii
      2. i and iv
      3. ii and iii
      4. iii and iv
  22. Which one of the following groups is made up of Plain Nilotes?
    1. Shilluk, Dinka, Nuer.
    2. Sandawe, Sanye, Dahalo. 
    3. Sabaot, Nandi, Dorobo.
    4. Jie, Samburu, Turkana.
  23. Before the coming of Europeans to Eastern Africa, the Baganda people were ruled by
    1. emperors.
    2. kings.
    3. chiefs.
    4. council of elders.
  24. Which one of the following is a social right? Right to
    1. education.
    2. vote
    3. own property.
    4. work.
  25. Standard eight learners of Malezi primary school visited a game park. They saw some armed people in the park. What was mainly being done by the arned people?
    1. Charging entry fee to the game park.
    2. Protecting wild animals from poachers. 
    3. Protecting tourists from wild animals.
    4. Taking tourists around the park.
  26. Below are statements about a traditional leader in Kenya:
    1. He traded with the coastal Arabs.
    2. He treated diseases
    3. He foretold future events.
      The person described above is
      1. chief Kivoi. 
      2. Nabongo Mumia. 
      3. Masaku.
      4. Laibon Lenana.
  27. Highways have been built in Kenya to bypass major towns mainly to
    1. reduce road accidents.
    2. reduce air pollution in towns.
    3. create jobs in the country.
    4. reduce traffic congestions in towns. 5
  28. Poultry farming in Kenya is mainly faced by the problem of
    1. inadequate market for poultry products. 
    2. high cost of controlling diseases.
    3. lack of good roads in farming areas.
    4. decrease in land.
  29. When Kenyans attend national day celebrations, it shows that they are
    1. patriotic.
    2. obedient.
    3. hardworking.
    4. humble.
  30. Which one of the following duties is performed by a county assembly? 
    1. Maintaining law and order.
    2. Supervising county projects.
    3. Formulating county laws.
    4. Appointing a county governor. 
  31. County assembly sittings are headed by the 
    1. speaker.
    2. clerk.
    3. governor.
    4. county commissioner.




  1. God showed that the seventh day was a special one during creation when He 
    1. finished all creation.
    2. blessed it and rested.
    3. created human beings in His image.
    4. blessed all the creation.
  2. Which one of the following commands did God give Noah after the flood? 
    1. Have many children so that your descendants will live all over the earth. 
    2. Leave your father's home and go to a country that I will show you.
    3. Remove your shoes for you are standing on a holy ground.
    4. offer your only so as a sacrifice.
  3. "Iam who Iam, this is my name forever" (Exodus 3:14-15). God spoke these words to
    1. Abraham.
    2. Jacob.
    3. Moses.
    4. Isaac.
  4. Which one of the following events took place during the Exodus?
    1. The Israelites attacked Jericno.
    2. The covenan' box was made.
    3. Saul was appointed king.
    4. Deborah served as a judge.
  5. When Hannah prayed at Shiloh, she asked God to give her
    1. long life.
    2. wisdom.
    3. wealth.
    4. a son.
  6. Which one of the following reasons explains why king Saul wanted to kill David?
    1. David had been appointed king.
    2. Saul had an evil spirit.
    3. David had become famous.
    4. David had refused to marry his daughter.
  7. In which one of the following ways did king Solomon turn away from God? He
    1. married many wives.
    2. refused to build a temple.
    3. allowed the worship of false gods.
    4. acquired a lot of wealth.
  8. Prophet Jeremiah was mistreated by being 
    1. thrown into a dry well.
    2. put in a lions' den.
    3. put in prison.
    4. beaten by the king.
  9. When there was famine in Israel, prophet Elijah went to live with a widow in 
    1. Shunem.
    2. Zarephath.
    3. Jericho.
    4. Moab.
  10. The son that Zechariah and Elizabeth was given a name by
    1. Mary. 
    2. angel Gabriel.
    3. Joseph.
    4. Simeon.
  11. Who among the following people ordered for a census to be done in Israel? 
    1. Augustus.
    2. Herod.
    3. Pilate.
    4. Quirinius.
  12. Which one of the following was a teaching of Jesus during the sermon on the mount? 
    1. 'Give to Ceasar what belongs to him.'
    2. 'Happy are the pure in heart, they will see God'
    3. 'He who is the least will be the greatest." 
    4. 'I am the way, the truth and life."
  13. The woman whom Jesus asked for water at a well was a
    1. Levite.
    2. Syrian.
    3. Samaritan.
    4. Moabite.
  14. Which one of the following miracles of Jesus shows that He came as a universal saviour?
    1. Healing a paralysed man.
    2. Healing the Roman officer's servant. 
    3. Raising Lazarus.
    4. Calming a storm.
  15. The parable of the sower teaches Christians
    1. how the word of God grows in them. 
    2. to plant good seeds in their farms. 
    3. to take good care of their farms.
    4. to help people in need.
  16. Who among the following people said that Jesus was a good man after He died on the cross?
    1. The repentant thief.
    2. An army officer.
    3. Pontious Pilate.
    4. Joseph of Arimathea
  17. 'Unless I see the scars and put my fingers on those scars and my hand in His side, I will not believe' (John 20:25). These words were said by
    1. Peter.
    2. Nathaniel.
    3. Andrew.
    4. Thomas.
  18. The Jews were surprised on the day of Pentecost when the disciples
    1. performed miracles.
    2. sang and praised God.
    3. preached to the crowd.
    4. spoke in foreign languages.
  19. The story of Ananias and Sapphira teaches Christians to be
    1. humble
    2. patient
    3. honest
    4. obedient
  20. When Paul and Silas were in jail in Philippi, they were
    1. mourning. 
    2. fasting.
    3. sleeping.
    4. singing.
  21. When Peter went to the town of Joppa, he 
    1. baptized an Ethiopian Eunuch. 
    2. preached to Comelius. 
    3. raised Tabitha.
    4. healed a lame beggar.
  22. Which one of the following beliefs about God in traditional African communities is true? God
    1. provides for His creation.
    2. is served by angels.
    3. finished creation in six days...
    4. lives in heaven.
  23. In traditional African communities, shrines are places where
    1. ancestors are buried.
    2. initiation ceremonies are done.
    3. the youth are taught.
    4. sacrifices are offered.
  24. When there is good harvest in traditional African communities, people thank God by
    1. offering food sacrifices in shrines. 
    2. giving food to travellers.
    3. selling surplus food.
    4. using foodstuffs to pay dowry.
  25. Christians show obedience to lawful authority by
    1. praising their leaders.
    2. paying taxes.
    3. praying for their leaders.
    4. going to church.
  26. The church promotes good health among
    1. offering free medical care. people in Kenya by
    2. establishing hospitals.
    3. visiting sick people.
    4. preaching to the sick.
  27. Meshack, a standard eight pupil, helped an old woman carry a heavy basket. This shows that Meshack
    1. knew the woman.
    2. was a strong person.
    3. was a kind person.
    4. was related to the woman.
  28. Maria, who is your deskmate, keeps on getting ill. The best action for you to take is to
    1. pray and advise her to go to hospital.
    2. change your sitting position.
    3. tell her to transfer to another school.
    4. tell her to stay at home.
  29. The best way for parents to teach their children good behaviour is by 
    1. setting good examples. 
    2. preparing family laws.
    3. punishing children who misbehave. 
    4. taking their children for counselling.
  30. Christians can benefit the community during their free time by
    1. singing in church. 
    2. reading the Bible.
    3. watching Christian programs.
    4. visiting the elderly.



  1. A person who fasts has two pleasures. One during  _________________________ food.
    1. twaam.
    2. iftaar.
    3. walima.
    4. suhur. 
  2. Which of the following vices is condemned in surah Al-Falaq?
    1. Witchcraft.
    2. Backbiting.
    3. Stealing.
    4. Adultery.
  3. All the following are recomanended preparations for reading the holy Qur'an except
    1. taking wudhu.
    2. a siwak.
    3. facing qibia.
    4. not putting it on the bare ground.
  4. Which form of knowledge sticks best in mind according to surah Alaq? Knowledge 
    1. of pictures.
    2. of the pen.
    3. from far away.
    4. of cramuning.
  5. Allah (SW) was not happy and even cursed Abu Lahab because he
    1. joined Abraham to destroy the holy kaaba.
    2. refused to join Islamic faith.
    3. dispersed the prophet's congregation. D
    4. killed baby girls and burried others alive.
  6. What is the meaning of Taqwa in Islamic faith?
    1. Reliance on Allah.
    2. Obedience to Allah.
    3. The fear of God.
    4. Belief in Allah.
  7. A Muslim who believes in Qadar should always say ____________________________ when making future plans.
    1. fii amaanillah
    2. mashallah
    3. astaghfirullah
    4. inshallah
  8. After Takbiratul Ihraam, there follows
    1. seven Takbiras. 
    2. surah Al-Fatiha 
    3. bending for Rukuu. 
    4. the first khutba.
  9. In which of the following villages did the hypocrites of Uhud in the Muslim army turn back and disappeared? A
    1. Abwa.
    2. Taif.C
    3. Ashawt.
    4. Khaibar.
  10. Which of the following ibaadaats cleanses off sins as free as a new born beby? 
    1. Ablution.
    2. Hajj
    3. Jum'a to Jum'a
    4. Fast of sittat shawwal.
  11. "Al-Eal dil Ameen" is a description that was used to praise a city called 
    1. Makkat mukarrama.
    2. Jerusalem.
    3. Madinat munawwara.
    4. Bethlehem.
  12. Muslims who reach at miqat to start hajj activities respond to Allah's call by uttering
    1. tahniq.
    2. takbir.
    3. taibia
    4. tahtiil.
  13. Which prophet of Allah was killed by being cut into pieces?
    1. Zakariya.
    2. Daud.
    3. Yahya.
    4. Yusuf.
  14. In which festival should Muslims first attend prayers before eating anything?
    1. Idd-ui-Fit
    2. Milad-un-Nabii.
    3. Idd-ul-hajj.
    4. Isra-wai-miraj.
  15. Prophet Musa (A.S) fled to Madyan after running away from _______________________ home.
    1. Firaun's
    2. Shuaib's
    3. Egypian's
    4. an Israelite's
  16. The present city of security where all Muslims today go for Hajj was the first settlement of
    1. Ibrahim's family.
    2. Adam's family.
    3. Muhammad's family 
    4. Nuh's family.
  17. The names "Allah" and "Prophet" are introduced into the ear of a newbom baby for the first time through
    1. adhaan.
    2. tashahhud.
    3. tahniq.
    4. iqama.
  18. The angel of Allah (SW) charged with the responsibility to welcome those rewarded at the gates of paradise is
    1. Malik.
    2. Jibril.
    3. Israfil.
    4. Ridhwaan.
  19. Muslims may locate and face Qibla for prayers by the help of all the following ways except
    1. use of a compass direction tool.
    2. use of the sunrise and sunset.
    3. use of a physically available mosque.
    4. automatic obvious imagination.
  20. Which of the following things is the same in both Jum'a and Idd prayers?
    1. The time of performing.
    2. When to say khutba.
    3. The number of rakaats prayed.
    4. Classification as sunna or fardh.
  21. Nadhir ibaadaats are
    1. the self promise to Allah. 
    2. performed by few Muslims. 
    3. performed as punishment.
    4. those performed at night. 
  22. Which one of the following was not an advice given to prophet Mohammad by Jibril (AS)?
    1. To stay knowing that one day He will die.
    2. To love whom He loves but know that one day they'll separate.
    3. He will be judged in all His deeds. 
    4. Not to walk on earth with pride.
  23. The prophet assured Muslims that whoever shahada will be his or her last words before death will
    1. enter paradise.
    2. be resurrected.
    3. be heavier than the earth and all in it.
    4. be rewarded beyond imagination.
  24. The level of buried treasures and precious minerals the one should have in order to qualify to give out zakat is called
    1. tarka.
    2. nisab.
    3. quut.
    4. qulatein.
  25. The two swalats which have two adhasns in Islam are
    1. Idd-ul-fitr and Idd-ul-hajj.
    2. kusuf and khusuf.
    3. taraweh and tahajjud.
    4. fajr and Jum'a.
  26. Who was the secretary at the Hudaibiyaa treaty agreements and writings?
    1. Zaid bin Thaabit.
    2. Abubakr swiddiiq.
    3. Abu Sufian.
    4. Ali bin Abi Talib. 
  27. Edat is observed
    1. in the event of a husband's death and twalaq.
    2. when a lady becomes seriously sick.
    3. if the couple never had Nikah ceremony.
    4. by all virgin ladies before marriage.
  28. Which of the following attributes of Allah is wrongly matched with its meaning?, 
    1. Al-maswawwir - the dominant.
    2. Al-Baar - the originator.
    3. Al-Khaaliq - the creator.
    4. A-Razzaaq - the provider.
  29. What do Muslims celebrate on the first day on shawwaal?
    1. Eid-ul-fitr. 
    2.  Milad-un-nabii. C
    3. Aqiqa.
    4. Khitma.
  30. Muslims are allowed to reduce the number of rakaats in salaat
    1. dhuhr. 
    2. musaafir.
    3. janaaza.
    4. maktuba.


  1. D
  2. A
  3. A
  4. D
  5. C
  6. C
  7. A
  8. B
  9. C
  10. C
  11. C
  12. B
  13. A
  14. D
  15. B
  16. C
  17. D
  18. D
  19. A
  20. C
  21. D
  22. A
  23. C
  24. A
  25. C
  26. B
  27. D
  28. C
  29. A
  30. D
  31. B
  32. B
  33. D
  34. A
  35. C
  36. A
  37. B
  38. D
  39. A
  40. C
  41. B
  42. A
  43. A
  44. C
  45. C
  46. A
  47. D
  48. A
  49. C
  50. B
  51. D
  52. B
  53. A
  54. B
  55. C
  56. D
  57. B
  58. A
  59. C
  60. A


  1. B
  2. A
  3. C
  4. B
  5. D
  6. C
  7. C
  8. A
  9. B
  10. B
  11. A
  12. B
  13. C
  14. B
  15. A
  16. B
  17. D
  18. D
  19. C
  20. D
  21. C
  22. A
  23. D
  24. A
  25. B
  26. B
  27. C
  28. A
  29. A
  30. D


  1. D
  2. A
  3. C
  4. B
  5. C
  6. C
  7. D
  8. A
  9. C
  10. B
  11. A
  12. C
  13. A
  14. C
  15. A
  16. A
  17. A
  18. D
  19. D
  20. C
  21. A
  22. D
  23. A
  24. B
  25. D
  26. D
  27. A
  28. A
  29. A
  30. B


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