Soma taarifa ifuatayo kisha ujibu maswali 1-5. 

Kila mwaka shuleni kwetu huwa na sherehe za kutoa tuzo kwa walimu, wanafunzi, wafanyakazi na mtu yeyote yule aliyefanya jambo lolote jema au kitendo chochote cha manufaa shuleni. Walimu hutuzwa tuzo kutokana na juhudi zao za kufunza vizuri. Wapishi hutuzwa kwa kuandaa mlo mtamu, usafi na kupika kwa wakati bila kuchelewa. Madereva nao hutuzwa kwa kuendesha magari ya shule kwa utaratibu, kuwa na nidhamu kwa wanafunzi wala kutosababisha ajali yoyote. 

Wafagiaji na wahudumu wengine kama vile mabawabu, waktubi, mahazili na mtarishi pia hutuzwa. Muhula uliopita, sisi wanafunzi tulituzwa kwa maadili, usafi, bidii na matokeo bora katika kila somo. Waliofanya vizuri katika somo la michezo na uhusiano mwema baina ya wanafunzi pia walituzwa. Mimi nilituzwa kwa kuwa bora katika Kiswahili, kuwa na nidhamu kuliko wote, kuwa safi mwaka mzima na pia nikapata tuzo ya kutumia muda wangu vizuri. Nawe pia unaweza ukapata zawadi hata zaidi yangu. Usife moyo kwa sababu ipo siku! 

Maswali 

1. Kila mwaka shuleni kuna sherehe zipi? Za
   1. kutwezwa 
   2. kutwazwa 
   3. kutuzwa
   4. kutozwa. 
2. Wafagiaji wa shuleni ni
   1. wapishi
   2. wahazili
   3. waktubi 
   4. matopasi. 
3. Msimulizi alipata tuzo ngapi? 
   1. Nne 
   2. Nyingi
   3. Moja 
   4. Tano.
4. Wapishi hupewa zawadi kwa kuzingatia yafuatayo isipokuwa
   1. kupika vyakula vitamu
   2. kupika kwa wakati 
   3. kupika vyakula nadhifu  
   4. kupika haraka.
5. Ni kweli kusema kuwa
   1. wanafunzi walipewa zawadi za kufuzu masomoni tu
   2. wanafunzi walituzwa kwa kufanya vyema katika nyanja zote shuleni
   3. walimu walipata tuzo kwa kufunza na kuvalia vizuri
   4. madereva walizawadiwa kwa kuendesha magari kwa kasi. 

Soma kifungu kifuatacho kisha ujibu maswali 6-10. 

Katika familia au ukoo kuna utaratibu wa maisha. Kuna watu wa rika tofauti. Kuna jinsia tofauti pia. Watu wa familia huishi kwa adabu, heshima na nidhamu zinazofuata umri na jinsia. Kwa hivyo, kuna jinsi ya kusalimiana kwa kuzingatia umri na jinsia. Binadamu ni jamii yenye nidhamu na isiyotenda mambo ovyoovyo kama wanyama wafanyavyo. 

Hata utaratibu wa kula hufuata kanuni na sera maalum. Huo ndio ubinadamu na ubinadamu ndio utu wa watu. Tusifanye mambo shaghalabaghala kama hayawani. Familia isiyo na utaratibu wa nidhamu si familia tena! Familia nyingine hazina salamu wala habari. Hawajiheshimu, hawaheshimu wenzao wala kuheshimiana. Hakuna babu, nyanya, mtoto, baba, mavyaa, halati wala dada. Tukiishi hivyo, yule ng'ombe mwenye mkia na pembe ataishi vipi? 

6. Ukoo ni kikundi cha watu wanaotokana na
   1. kabila moja
   2. dini moja
   3. nasaba moja
   4. kijiji kimoja.
7. Binadamu wenye utu na ubinadamu hufanya mambo yao kwa njia gani?
   1. Taratibu 
   2. Ovyoovyo 
   3. Shaghalabaghala 
   4. Kiholela. 
8. Familia au ukoo ni sawa na
   1. kabila
   2. kijiji
   3. jamii
   4.  jumla.
9. Ni maamkuzi yapi hutumiwa kulingana na umri? 
   1. Habari 
   2. Sabalheri
   3. Hujambo 
   4. Cheichei. 
10. Halati ni
    1. dada ya mama
    2. dada ya baba 
    3. kaka ya mama
    4. kaka ya baba. 

Soma shairi hili kisha ujibu maswali 11-15. 

Mkono wa mkulima, ni mgumu kama chuma,
Chakula cha mkulima, ni maharage na sima,
Mtazame mkulima, hatulii juma zima,
Bali huyu mkulima, ndiye mama wa uzima. 

Maisha ya mkulima, ni ya shida tangu zama,
Kibanda cha mkulima, huvuja na kutetema,
Mgongo wa mkulima, daima umeinama,
Bali huyu mkulima, ndiye mama wa uzima. 

Nafasi ya mkulima, mara nyingi ni ya nyuma,
Magarini mkulima, kazi yake kusimama,
Hadharani mkulima, huambiwa hana jema,
Bali huyu mkulima, ndiye mama wa uzima. 

Maswali 

11. 'Ni mgumu kama chuma' ni fani gani ya Lugha? 
    1. Kitendawili 
    2. Istiara 
    3. Methali 
    4. Tashbihi. 
12. Kwa nini mgongo wa mkulima daima umeinama? Kwa sababu 
    1. ya kazi yake 
    2. ni mzee
    3. ana shida
    4. nyumba yake ni ndogo.
13. Hili ni shairi la aina gani? 
    1. Tathlitha 
    2. Tarbia
    3. Ngonjera 
    4. Ukulima.
14. Kibwagizo cha shairi hili kina maana gani? 
    1. Mkulima ndiye atupaye uhai. 
    2. Kwa chakula cha mkulima tunaishi. 
    3. Mkulima ni mama yetu. 
    4. Mtoto wa mkulima anaitwa Uzima.
15. Kuna uwezekano mkubwa wa mkulima kupanda mbegu msimu upi? 
    1. Kiangazi 
    2. Kipupwe
    3. Mchoo 
    4. Mafuriko. 

Jaza mapengo kwa majibu mwafaka. 

Kila mnyama ____16____meno ____17____  ya juu na ya chini. Binadamu mtu mzima huwa na meno thelathini na ___18___ .Wanyama wote wana meno ____19____ambayo ____20____sumu kali. 

Jibu maswali kulingana na maagizo. 

21. Maskani  ________________________ hufagiliwa.
    1. zetu
    2. mwetu
    3. petu
    4. yetu 
22. Baba akikasirika huwa mkali kama ______________________
    1. moto
    2. pilipili
    3. simba
    4. jua
23. Andika ukubwa wa sentensi ifuatayo. 
    Ndoo zetu zimepasuka.
    1. Mandoo zetu zimepasuka.
    2. Madoo yetu yamepasuka. 
    3. Ndoo zetu zimepasuka.
    4. Mandoo yetu yamepasuka.
24. Tumia kiashiria sahihi. 
    Ugonjwa _____________________ ni hatari. 
    1. hiyo 
    2. ile 
    3. huo 
    4. iyo 
25. Nilipokuwa katika ziara, niliona _____________________ ya milima.
    1. safu
    2. mabunda
    3. msafara
    4. milolongo 
26. Baba yangu amenunua gari _____________________
    1. mpya 
    2. kipya
    3. zipya
    4. jipya.
27. Chagua kiwakilishi cha idadi katika sentensi ifuatayo. 
    Watu wengi wana gari moja lakini wachache wana pikipiki mbili.
    1. wengi
    2. moja
    3. wachache
    4. mbili.
28. Kati ya viwakilishi vifuatavyo, ni kipi cha nafsi ya tatu katika wingi? 
    1. Zao 
    2. Yeye 
    3. Nyinyi
    4. Wao.
29. Tambua kivumishi katika sentensi hii.
    Mama huyo alitembea haraka akafika vizuri.
    1. mama
    2. huyo 
    3. haraka
    4. vizuri 
30. Kipi si kiungo cha kusafisha damu?
    1. Pafu
    2. Buki
    3. Figo 
    4. Nso. 

INSHA 

Umepewa dakika 40 kuandika insha yako. 

Andika insha ya kusisimua kuhusu mada ifuatayo; 

UCHAGUZI SHULENI MWETU. 

MARKING SCHEME

1. C
2. D
3. A
4. D
5. B
6. C
7. A
8. C
9. D
10. A
11. D
12. A
13. B
14. B
15. C
16. C
17. A
18. C
19. A
20. B
21. D
22. C
23. B
24. C
25. A
26. D
27. C
28. D
29. B
30. A

Read the story below and answer the questions that follow. 

Anna was a popular girl at school. Everyone liked her very much because she always treated everyone kindly. Whenever anyone had a problem and needed help, they would go to her and she was ready to help. 

One day, there was a celebration held in their school. This celebration was commonly referred to as Best Friend's Day. The teacher asked everyone to make three presents to give to three of their best friends. Everyone made presents for their friends but Anna was confused because she considered every one as her friend. When the presents were distributed, Anna did not get any present. She became really sad. Later in the evening, she told her mother what had happened. Her mother said, "your best friend is the person you give a lot of time and attention to and are willing to support you even when times are hard." She also said, "you cannot have everybody as your best friend because there will never be enough time to spend with all of them." 

Anna finally understood what it means to have a best friend. She now knew that her best friend would be her mother and gave her the presents she had made. 

Questions 

1. Why did everyone like Anna very Because she
   1. always treated everyone fairly 
   2. let them copy her homework
   3. gave them snacks 
   4. was rich.
2. Why were the learners told to make three presents? 
   1. The teacher was celebrating her birthday.
   2. It was going to be Christmas the next day.
   3. They were celebrating Best Friends' Day.
   4. They wanted to surprise their parents.
3. Who was Anna's best friend according to the passage? 
   1. Her teacher 
   2. Everybody 
   3. Her mother 
   4. Nobody.
4. Why can't everybody be Anna's best friend? 
   1. There are not enough presents for everybody. 
   2. There is never enough time to spend with everyone.
   3. Nobody liked her. 
   4. It's against the law.
5. Why didn't Anna get any present? She.
   1. did not have a best friend
   2. did not want any present 
   3. was sad 
   4. did not make any presents.

Read the following story and answer the questions that follow. 

One day, there was an argument between the chameleon and hare. Chameleon was tired of hare making fun of him because of his eating habits and slow nature when he walked. To stop the argument, they decided to race to see who would win. 

Hare was so confident that he would win that he started bragging to everyone about it. Tortoise was asked to be the judge. Tortoise said the first to sit on the stool at the finishing line would be the winner. The race started and when hare looked back, he did not see chameleon. He relaxed and started walking slowly while eating fruits on the side of the road. When hare reached the stool, he prepared to sit down but he heard a little voice telling him, "don't sit on me, hare, am already here." It turned out chameleon had attached himself on to hare's tail and jumped onto the stool as soon as hare turned to sit down. Hare was so surprised. The animals who had come to watch the race cheered chameleon and carried him high in the air. Hare walked away in shame. 

Questions. 

6. Why did hare make fun of chameleon? Because
   1. of his eating habits and slow nature 
   2. he was small in size 
   3. chameleon changed colour 
   4. he liked making fun of animals. 
7. Why did the hare and the chamelcon decide to race? 
   1. For fun.
   2. To stop an argument.
   3. To win a prize.
   4. To see who was stronger. 
8. What happened when hare looked back and did not see chameleon? He 
   1. continued to run to the finish line
   2. went back to look for chameleon
   3. lay down and slept 
   4. relaxed and walked slowly.
9. How did chameleon reach the stool before hare? He 
   1. asked other animals to carry him
   2. ran all the way there
   3. attached himself to hare's tail
   4. flew there.
10. What lesson do we learn from this story? We should
    1. not make fun of others because of their weaknesses 
    2. always respect our elders 
    3. always be like hare 
    4. never be slow. 

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. 

The constitution is the fundamental principles or established rules that constitute the legal basis of a political party, organization or other type of entity and commonly determines how that entity is to be governed. When these principles are written down into a single document or set of legal documents, those documents may be said to embody a written constitution. 

Constitutions concern different levels of organizations, from sovereign countries to companies and associations. A treaty that establishes an international organization is also its constitution, in that it defines how that organization is constituted. Within states, a constitution defines the principles upon which the state is based, the procedure in which laws are made and by whom. Some constitutions, also act as limiters of state power, by establishing lines which a state's rulers cannot cross, such as fundamental human rights. 

The Kenyan constitution acts as a safeguard against human rights violation. The human rights contained in the constitution is the right to life, freedom of speech, association and religion, right to own land or business and several more. Without the constitution, there would be disorder and chaos. Without the constitution everyone would do as they please without regard to others. People wouldn't care whom they hurt and this world would be impossible to live in. 

Questions 

11. What is the constitution according to the passage?
    1. Principals and rules that govern a party, organization or association. 
    2. Written letters that tell us what to do 
    3. Written document used as a learning resource.
    4. Rules that govern members of the family
12. When the principles are written down in a single document or set of legal documents they are said to embody
    1. a written constitution
    2. the fundamental rights 
    3. the rule of law 
    4. the legislative council.
13. _________________________ that establishes an international organization is also its constitution.
    1. Truce
    2. Name
    3. Constitution
    4. Treaty
14. The Kenyan constitution acts as
    1. evidence of independence
    2. a safeguard against human rights violation.
    3. a way to show of how learned we are 
    4. definite way to show how to run the country. 
15. Which of the following is not a human right or freedom? 
    1. Right to life.
    2. Right to quality education. 
    3. Freedom of expression and association. 
    4. Right to own fire arms. 

CLOZE TEST 

For qustions 16-25, choose the correct word from the choices given to fill in the blank space. 

Pollution ____16____rivers has ____17____ such a major problem to the point ____18____it is no longer safe to use water ___19___the rivers for domestic use. The water is so full of chemicals ____20____heavy metals ____21____ can cause serious ____22____and defects. This ____23____ should be ____24____ as soon _____25_____ possible. 

Choose the correct word to complete the  sentences

26. I ___________________ working on a big problem. 
    1. am
    2. are
    3. is
    4. were
27. You  ________________________ finish your homework or get punished.
    1. neither. 
    2. nor
    3. either 
    4. none 
28. _______________________ of my friends did not attend my graduation
    1. Less 
    2. Many 
    3. Any 
    4. None 
29. Mary bought an ___________________ dress.
    1. expensive, cotton, black 
    2. cotton, black, expensive 
    3. expensive, black, cotton 
    4. cotton, expensive, black 
30. The bride ______________________ walked down the aisle. 
    1. majestically 
    2. automatically
    3. hurriedly 
    4. tearfully

COMPOSITION 

Below is the beginning of a story. Write and complete the story making it as interesting as you can.

As we were walking home, my brother suddenly screamed......................

MARKING SCHEME

1. A
2. C
3. C
4. B
5. A
6. A
7. B
8. D
9. C
10. A
11. A
12. A
13. D
14. B
15. D
16. B
17. B
18. A
19. B
20. C
21. A
22. C
23. A
24. D
25. A
26. A
27. C
28. B
29. C
30. A

QUESTIONS

1. What is 17237 written in words?
   1. Seventeen two three seven. 
   2. Seventeen two hundred and thirty seven. 
   3. Ten thousand seven thousand and two hundred and thirty.
   4. Seventeen thousand two hundred and thirty seven.
2. A carpenter made a table 5.25m long and 2.31m wide. What is the perimeter of the table to the nearest tenths? 
   1. 15m 
   2. 15.1m 
   3. 15.02m 
   4. 15.2m 
3. Michelle made a square mat during a practical session. The side of the mat measured 34cm. What was the area of the mat? 
   1. 946cm² 
   2. 68cm² 
   3. 1156cm² 
   4. 136cm²  
4. A school has a population of 2352 pupils. If two thirds of the population were boys, how many girls were in the school? 
   1. 784 
   2. 1568 
   3. 1176 
   4. 2352 
5. Farmers harvested seventy tonnes of rice in one season. They later hired five lorries to transport the rice to the packaging factory. If the lorries carried equal tonnes of rice, how many tonnes did each lorry carry?
   1. 20t 
   2. 14t 
   3. 5t
   4. 6t.
6. During a group discussion session, learners were provided with the number cards shown below. 
   
   What is the difference between the largest and the smallest 5 digit numbers that can be formed using the number cards? 
   1. 23869 
   2. 74943 
   3.  69832 
   4. 76835 
7. Daniel was asked by his teacher to round off the product of 27 and 23 to the nearest hun- dred. What correct response would he give? 
   1. 353 
   2. 400
   3. 251
   4. 600 
8. Penina deposited H shillings in her bank account in January. In March, she deposited sh.45000 in the account. Write an algebraic expression to show the total amount of money deposited in her account.
   1. Sh. (H + 45000)
   2. Sh. (H x 45000) 
   3. Sh. (45000 ÷ H) 
   4. Sh. (45000 - H) 
9. A company bought several buses. The buses were parked in 80 rows. Each row had thirty one buses. How many buses did the company buy altogether?
   1. 111
   2. 2400 
   3. 2480
   4. 2569
10. A football match started at 1534hr. If the match took 90 minutes, at what time did it end in 12-hour clock system? 
    1. 4:24p.m
    2. 5:04p.m
    3. 2:44p.m
    4. 4:34pm 
11. Grade 6 pupils were asked by their teacher to work out the sum of the H.C.F and L.C.M of 12, 24 and 48. Which of the following is the correct response? 
    1. 24 
    2. 12 
    3. 60 
    4. 36
12. Liam scored ⁷⁵/₁₀₀ in a test. Write his score as a fraction in its simplest form. 
    1. ³/₄
    2. ¹⁵/₂₀
    3. 0.75
    4. ⁷/₁₀
13. A shopkeepersold sixty-half litre packets of milk. How many litres did she sell on that day?
    1. 60 litres
    2. 120 litres
    3. 30 litres 
    4. 60.5 litres 
14. Sarah drew a circle of circumference 88cm. What was the diameter of the circle? 
    1. 44cm 
    2. 22cm 
    3. 176cm 
    4. 28cm 
15. Helen was asked to work out the sum of 23.071, 3.932 and 10.12. What is the place of digit 7 in the sum? 
    1. Tenths.
    2. Thousands 
    3. Ones 
    4. Tens
16. In a farm, there are 27 goats and 31 sheep. If the number of dairy cows in the farm is half the sum of the goats and sheep, how many animals are in the farm altogether?
    1. 58 
    2. 60 
    3. 29
    4. 87 
17. Grade 6 pupils were discussing how to solve the sum below. 
    ¹/₂ of 60 (¹/₂ + ¹/₃) − ³/₄
    Which of the following is the correct response? 
    1. 34¹/₄
    2. 49¹/₄ 
    3. 24¹/₄ 
    4. 25³/₄
18. A family consumes 2¹/₄ litres of milk in a day. How many millilitres of milk does the family consume in a day? 
    1. 2250ml
    2. 2500ml 
    3. 270ml 
    4. 225ml 
19. Asher drew the figure below. What is the area of the unshaded part? 
    
    1. 70m² 
    2. 17m² 
    3. 35m² 
    4. 54m² 
20. Grade 5 learners were measuring angles using protractors. The teacher drew the angle marked x below and asked them to measure it. What was the correct answer? 
    
    1. 80°
    2. 120°
    3. 60°
    4. 100° 
21. The figure below shows a rectangular tank of height 7m, width 8m and length 11m. Work out the volume of the tank. 
    
    1. 26cm³ 
    2. 706m³ 
    3. 67m³  
    4. 616m³  

22. Work out the total distance round the figure below in metres.

1. 35.64m 
2. 27.64m 
3. 16.54m 
4. 17.82m 

Below is a price list at Asali shop. Use it to answer questions 23 and 24. 

23. Abbie bought 1 litre of cooking oil, 2kg of maize flour, 1 litre bottle of soda, 3 pieces of chocolate, 1 kg of salt and one bar of soap. How much did the items cost altogether? 
    1. Sh.665
    2. Sh.905 
    3. Sh.845 
    4. Sh.515
24. Abbie paid for the items bought in question 23 above using two-500 shilling notes. What balance did she get? 
    1. Sh.300 
    2. Sh.95 
    3. Sh.485 
    4. Sh.155
25. During a group discussion, learners were required to write four - 5 digit numbers in an ascending order. Who among the following learners wrote the correct order? 
    1. Rael - 25821, 25812, 24821, 26103 
    2. George - 45923, 41234, 38921, 50134 
    3. Purity - 23456, 67352, 82351, 93723 
    4. Jayden - 89234, 78234, 64328, 43285 
26. A certain ceremony was attended by 378294 people. What is the total value of digit 7 in the number?
    1. 700
    2. 70000
    3. 70
    4. 700000
27. To reduce the number of unemployed youths in a certain ward, the county government created 9569 job opportunities. Round off the number of jobs to the nearest thousand.
    1. 9000
    2. 9560 
    3. 10000
    4. 10069 
28. A contractor covered a square floor of a meeting hall with 3136 square tiles. How many tiles did he place along each side of the meeting hall? 
    1. 56 
    2. 64 
    3. 36 
    4. 44 
29. A church-based organization donated 34678 bags of maize to an area affected by drought in the country. If each bag had 25kg, how many kilograms of maize were donated? 
    1. 866950kgs 
    2. 724540kgs 
    3. 34623kgs
    4. 34703kgs 
30. Reuben wrote the sum below on the chalkboard. What answer did he get after working it out? 
    132 ÷ 11 x 12+ 456 − 250 
    1. 472 
    2. 690 
    3. 350 
    4. 144 

MARKING SCHEME

1. D
2. B
3. C
4. A
5. B
6. B
7. D
8. A
9. C
10. B
11. C
12. A
13. C
14. D
15. C
16. D
17. C
18. A
19. C
20. B
21. D
22. A
23. C
24. D
25. C
26. B
27. C
28. A
29. A
30. C

SOCIAL STUDIES  

 Use the map of Safa area to answer questions 1 - 7.

1. Flowers are transported to Joli town for export by
   1. air
   2. railway
   3. water
   4. road,
2. The most senior administrator of Safa area is
   
   1. county commissioner
   2. governor
   3. chief
   4. county representaive.
3. Which one of the following factors mainly influenced the setting up of the milk factory?
   
   1. Nearness to a dairy farm.
   2. Nearness to market.
   3. Nearness to a road.
   4. Availability of space.
4. The main contribution of the forest in the Western part of Safa area is that it
   
   1. ís a tourist attraction site
   2. protects the sources of rivers
   3. is a source of timber
   4. attracts rainfall in the area.
5. The main economic activity carried out in Safa area is
   
   1. trading
   2. farming
   3. fishing
   4. lumbering.
6. The climate of the area covered by the map can be described as
   
   1. cool and dry
   2. hot and dry
   3. cool and wet
   4. hot and wet.
7. Land in Safa area generally rises from
   1. North West to South East.
   2. South West to North East
   3. South East to North West.
   4. North East to South West.
8. The main reason why the River and Lake Nilotes dispersed from the Pubungu Pakwach area was
   1. drought
   2. famine
   3. overpopulation
   4. epidermics.
9. Below are statements about marriage system.
   1. Polygamy is allowed
   2. It is conducted by a religious leader 
   3. A man can marry only one wife 
   4. A marriage certificate is issued
   5. It is conducted in a government office
      Which one of the following combinations consist of statements that are correct about a Christian marriage?
      1. ii, iii, iv
      2. i, iv, v
      3. iii, iv, v
      4. ii, iv, v
10. Africans in Ghana used peaceful means to attain independence because
    1. Africans had strong leader
    2. Africans had formed political parties
    3. most Africans were educated
    4. the colony did not attract many settlers.
11. Which one of the following groups of countries consist of those crossed by the Great North Road?
    1. Zambia, Tanzania, Ethiopia.
    2. Congo, Angola, Namibia.
    3. Kenya, Uganda, Gabon.
    4. Nigeria, Niger, Algeria.
12. South Africa is able to produce many manufactured goods because
    1. the goods are in great demand
    2. there is availability of cheap labour
    3. the country has variety of minerals
    4. the country experiences high rainfall.
13. Below are characteristics of a vegetation zone in Africa
    1. There are scattered dry shrubs
    2. Cacti and euphorbia plants are common 
    3. There are dry turfs of grass
       The vegetation zone described above is 
       1. mediterranean vegetation
       2. semi-desert vegetation
       3. tropical vegetatio
       4. temperate vegetation.
14. When the Mandinka people of West Africa resisted French colonial rule they were led by
    1. Samouri Tour
    2. King Lewanika
    3. Chief Mkwawa
    4. Kabaka Mwanga.
15. Below are conditions for growing a certain crop
    
    1. Protection from strong winds
    2. Well drained fertile soils
    3. High rainfall
    4. High temperature between 24°c and 27°c
       The conditions listed above favour the growing of
       1. wheat
       2. cotton
       3. cocoa
       4. maize.

Use the diagram below to answer question 16  

16. The type of rainfall shown above is experienced in the following areas except 
    1. Southern Uganda
    2. Lake Victoria basin
    3. Coastal lowlands of Kenya
    4. Central Tanzania.
17. Which one of the following groups is made up of Voltaic speakers of West Africa?
    
    1. Susu, Mande, Soninke.
    2. Wolof, Fulani, Tukolor.
    3. Igbo, Yoruba, Ewe.
    4. Dagomba, Bergu, Gurba.
18. Which pair consists of elements of a map only?
    
    1. Key, vegetation.
    2. Shape, compass.
    3. Title, frame.
    4. Relief, drainage.
19. Large commercial poultry farming is carried out near urban centres due to
    
    1. availability of electricity
    2. availability of cheap labour
    3. nearness to market for poultry products
    4. nearness to source of water.
20. Residual mountains are formed through
    
    1. erosion
    2. faulting
    3. folding
    4. volcanicity.
21. Which one of the following statements about European colonial rule in Belgian Congo is correct?
    1. Africans were encouraged to assimilate.
    2. Africans were forced to work in rubber farms.
    3. Europeans used indirect rule.
    4. Europeans allowed African chiefs to rule.
22. Which one of the following duties is performed by a head teacher in a school?
    1. Appointing the deputy headteacher.
    2. Chairing Board of Management.
    3. Allocating funds to a school.
    4. Keeping school records.
23. Improvement in modern methods of communication has mainly led to
    
    1. migration of people to towns
    2. increase in trading activities
    3. expansion of urban centres
    4. expansion of infrastructure.
24. Three of the following are ways in which communities interacted in the past. Which one was not?
    
    1. Games.
    2. War.
    3. Marriage.
    4. Trading.
25. Which one of the following was a contribution of Nelson Mandela? He
    1. led South Africa to independence
    2. made South Africa a one-party state
    3. led South Africa to the first all racial elections
    4. was a founder member of African Union.
26. Lake Tana in Ethiopia and lake Itasy in Madagascar were formed when
    1. water collected inside faults
    2. water collected inside craters
    3. parts of the earth sunk
    4. flowing magma blocked rivers.
27. The Fulani people of West Africa are able to graze their livestock over large areas because 
    1. there is plenty of grass,
    2. they live in sparsely populated areas
    3. they keep large herds of livestock
    4. they use horses to scout for pasture.
28. Which one of the following factors may lead to conflicts in the society? 
    1. Use of indigenous languages.
    2. Intermarriage among communities.
    3. Unequal distribution of national resources.
    4. Movement of people to towns.

Use the map of Eastern Africa below to answer questions 29 to 32

29. Which one of the following groups of communities used the route marked S during the migration period?
    1. Abagusii, Abakuria, Abaluhyia.
    2. Yao, Hehe, Makonde.
    3. Ngoni, Chagga, Nyamwezi.
    4. Agikuyu, Aembu, Ameru.
30. The main export crop of the country marked Z is
    
    1. sisal
    2. sugarcane
    3. coffee
    4. cotton.
31. Natural vegetation in the shaded area marked X consist of
    
    1. tall elephant grass
    2. dense evergreen forests
    3. papyrus reeds
    4. short dry shrubs.
32. Three of the following statements about the town marked T are true. Which one is not?
    
    1. It started as an Arab trading centre. 
    2. It is located in a rich agricultural area.
    3. It is a county headquarter.
    4. It lies along the Trans African Highway.
33. Below are statemens about a type of democracy practised in the society-
    
    1. Decisions are made through general agreement
    2. People are involved in decision making
    3. People negotiate over issues
       The type of democracy described above is
       1. representative democracy
       2. nominal democracy
       3. participatory democracy
       4. direct democracy.
34. Which one of the following game parks is correctly matched with the country where it is found?
    

    	Game park	Country
    A.	Selous	South Africa
    B.	Huango	Zimbabwe
    C.	Kruger	Sudan
    D.	Dinder	Tanzania

35. Which one of the following was a negative effect of colonization?
    
    1. Establishment of industries.
    2. Introduction of cash crops.
    3. Introduction of modern healthcare.
    4. Alienation of African land.
36. The Ngoni people were forced to move from South Africa by
    
    1. Galla
    2. Zulu
    3. Arabs
    4. Bemba.
37. Three of the following are contributions of a community to the development of a school. Which one is not?
    
    1. Donating land to expand school facilities.
    2. Providing workers to a school.
    3. Preparing the school routine.
    4. Providing resource persons to a school.
38. Which one of the following was an achievement of the Organization of African Unity (OAU)?
    
    1. It supported countries fighting for independence.
    2. It established a common trading currency in Africa.
    3. It promoted the use of a common language.
    4. It constructed roads in member countries.
39. Which one of the following rivers end in the form of an estuary?
    
    1. River Omo.
    2. River Niger.
    3. River Rufiji.
    4. River Congo.
40. Kelvin is a British national working in Kenya. He can apply for a Kenyan citizenship if he
    
    1. marries a Kenyan citizen
    2. owns property in Kenya
    3. has lived in Kenya continuously for 7 years
    4. vies for an elective seat.
41. Dairy farming in Kenya is mainly favoured by
    
    1. cool and wet highland conditions
    2. availability of market for milk
    3. presence of milk factories in farming areas
    4. availability of good roads to transport milk.
42. The diagram below shows the formation of a mountain
    
    Which one of the following mountains in Eastern Africa was formed through the above process?
    
    1. Mount Ruwenzori.
    2. Pare highlands.
    3. Usambara mountains.
    4. Mount Longonot.
43. Which one of the following groups is made up of River and Lake Nilotes found in Eastern Africa?
    
    1. Sebei, Pokot, Kalenjin.
    2. Dinka, Luo, Acholi.
    3. Samburu, Turkana, Jie.
    4. Gabbra, Oromo, Burji.
44. The Mandinka people of West Africa resisted French colonial rule because
    1. they wanted to remain independent
    2. the French stopped them from trading 
    3. they had a strong leader
    4. they had a well trained army.
45. The main product of the planted forests of Swaziland is
    
    1. firewood
    2. pulp
    3. fruits
    4. herbal medicine.
46. Which one of the following is a function of clan elders in traditional African communities?
    
    1. Leading people to war.
    2. Foretelling future events.
    3. Allocating land to members.
    4. Preparing medicine from plants.
47. Below are descriptions of an early visitor to Eastern Africa
    
    1. He visited Kabaka Mutesa 1 of Buganda
    2. He explored areas along River Lualaba
    3. He met David Livingstone
       The person described above is
       1. John Speke
       2. Ludwig Krapf
       3. Johanne Rebman.
       4. Henry Morton Stanley.
48. African socialism was introduced in Kenya after independence in order to
    
    1. settle landless Africans
    2. promote single party rule
    3. promote political and economic development
    4. reward Africans who fought for independence.
49. The main reason why cultural artefacts are conserved in museums is to
    
    1. preserve the history of communities 
    2. sell them to people who visit the museums
    3. attract tourists to the country
    4. create jobs in the country.
50. Which one of the following plateaus is correctly matched with the country where it is found?
    

    	Plateau	Country
    A.	Bie	Nigeria
    B.	Fouta Djalon	Guinea
    C.	Jos	Sudan
    D.	Teiga	Angola

51. Three of the following are effects of industries on the environment. Which one is not?
    
    1. Destruction of natural forests.
    2. Emission of smoke to the atmosphere.
    3. Settlement of people around industries. 
    4. Dumping of waste in rivers.
52. Which one of the following minerals is correctly matched with the method used in extracting it from the ground?
    

    	Mineral	Method
    A.	Soda ash	Evaporation
    B.	Copper	Dredging
    C.	Salt	Open cast
    D.	Gold	Deep shaft

53. Nabongo Mumia collaborated with the British in Kenya because
    
    1. he wanted protection from the Nandi
    2. he wanted to trade with the British
    3. he wanted the British to build school
    4. he wanted to adopt European way of life.
54. The settlement of Arabs along the East Coast of Africa led to
    
    1. partition of East Africa
    2. introduction of pastoral farming
    3. decline in slave trade
    4. spread of Islam in Eastern Africa.
55. The effect of the Benguela currents on the South West Coast of Africa is that it has led to
    
    1. growth of dense vegetation along the Coast
    2. heavy rainfall along the Coast
    3. dry, conditions along the Coast
    4. increase of temperature along the Coast.
56. Who among the following prominent African leaders was not a founder member of the Organization of African Unity (OAU)? 
    1. Gamal Abdel Nasser.
    2. Nelson Mandela.
    3. Leopold Sedar Senghor,
    4. Haile Sellasie.
57. Which one of the following is a responsibility of the government to its citizens?
    
    1. Protecting them and their property.
    2. Establishing places of worship.
    3. Forming political parties for citizens. 
    4. Campaigning for candidates during elections.
58. A Kenyan citizen qualifies to vote if the person
    
    1. is able to read
    2. is a member of a political party
    3. is a registered voter
    4. lives in the constituency he is voting.
59. The head of a county executive committee is
    
    1. a county commissioner
    2. a senatcr
    3. a county assembly speaker
    4. a governor.
60. Three of the following statements about a county government are true. Which one is not?
    
    1. It is headed by a speaker
    2. It is headed by an elected leaders
    3. It implements projects in a county 
    4. It has appointed members.

SECTION B

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION 

61. Which one of the following things did God create on the fourth day?
    
    1. Moon.
    2. Sky.
    3. Dry land.
    4. Sea creatures.
62. Who among the following people was a son of Noah?
    
    1. Seth.
    2. Shem.
    3. Lamech.
    4. Enoch.
63. Abraham obeyed God when he was living in Haran by
    
    1. taking Lot with him
    2. accepting to sacrifice Isaac
    3. getting a wife for Isaac
    4. moving to an unknown land.
64. Moses was not willing to go back to Egypt from Midian because
    
    1. he was afraid of the king of Egypt
    2. his family was in Midian
    3. the Israelites did not know him
    4. he was not a good speaker.
65. When the Israelites crossed the Red sea they worshipped God by
    
    1. singing songs
    2. offering sacrifices
    3. reciting the commandments
    4. fasting.
66. Who among the following women was a judge in Israel?
    
    1. Ruth.
    2. Naomi.
    3. Deborah.
    4. Hannah.
67. Which one of the following was done by David when he was the king of Israel?
    
    1. He killed Goliath.
    2. He built a temple in Jerusalem.
    3. He made Jerusalem the capital.
    4. He made the covenant box.
68. King Ahab offended God when he
    
    1. took Uriah's wife
    2. took Naboth's vineyard
    3. planned the murder of Uriah
    4. consulted a Median.
69. Who among the following prophets said that Jesus would be born in the town of Bethlehem?
    
    1. Jeremiah.
    2. Hosea.
    3. Micah.
    4. Isaiah.
70. Which one of the following events took place when Jesus was born?
    
    1. An angel spoke to some shepherds.
    2. Darkness covered the earth.
    3. There was an earthquake.
    4. The curtain in the temple was born. PREDICTOR-001
71. When John the baptist met Jesus he called him the
    
    1. king of the Jews
    2. redeemer of Jerusalem
    3. light to the gentiles
    4. lamb of God.
72. Which one of the following events took place when Jesus was fasting in the wilderness?
    
    1. He changed water into wine.
    2. He was anointed by a sinful woman.
    3. The devil tempted him.
    4. He healed a paralyzed man.
73. Which one of the following was a teaching of Jesus during the sermon on the mount? 
    1. 'I am the way the truth and life'
    2.  'Love your enemies and pray for those who persecute you'
    3. 'Who is the greatest?'
    4. 'Happy are those who believe without seeing'
74. Which one of the following miracles was performed by Jesus in Capernaum?
    
    1. Healing a paralyzed man.
    2. Raising a widow's son.
    3. Changing water into wine.
    4. Calming a storm.
75. A lesson that Christians learn from the parable of the lost son is to be
    
    1. humble
    2. patience
    3. repentant
    4. generous.
76. When Jesus was arrested he was praying at
    
    1. the Garden of Gethsemane
    2. the temple in Jerusalem
    3. the home of Zacchaeus
    4. the home of Lazarus.
77. Peter denied Jesus because
    
    1. Jesus had predicted that
    2. it was at night
    3. he was afraid of the crowd
    4. he was not known to the high priest.
78. The disciples were filled with the Holy Spirit when they were praying in
    
    1. Jericho
    2. Bethlehem
    3. Emmaus
    4. Jerusalem.
79. Who among the following believers was chosen as a deacon?
    
    1. Ananias.
    2.  Philip.
    3. Saul.
    4. Barnabbas.
80. Tabitha of Joppa showed kindness by
    
    1. making clothes for widows
    2. giving food to strangers
    3. washing clothes for the elderly
    4. feeding orphans.
81. Which one of the following groups of books are gospels?
    1. Ezra, Esther, Job.
    2. Mark, Luke, John.
    3. Romans, Ephesians, Jude.
    4. Revelation, Exodus, Isaiah.
82. In traditional African communities children are named after ancestors in order to
    
    1. please the parents
    2. make the children grow healthy
    3. avoid calamites
    4. keep the ancestors remembered.
83. The work of priests in traditional African communities is to
    
    1. lead people in offering sacrifices
    2. predict future events
    3. prepare libations
    4. prepare medicine from plants.
84. In traditional African communities children are taught moral values by
    
    1. peers
    2. warriors 
    3. priests
    4. parents.
85. The main reason for marriage in traditional. African communities is to
    
    1. get companionship
    2. get children
    3. become famous
    4. get wealth.
86. Amos prays for her sick mother. This element of prayer is
    
    1. adoration
    2. petition
    3. confession
    4. intercession.
87. Christians are encouraged to conserve the environment mainly because
    
    1. they get food from the environment
    2. they are paid to do so
    3. God has commanded them to do so
    4. they become known.
88. The best way in which parents can teach their children good behaviour is by 
    1. punishing children who misbehave
    2. rewarding their children
    3. setting good examples
    4. taking their children to church.
89. Christians preach against abortion mainly because
    
    1. it is destruction of life
    2. it is a waste of money
    3. it makes people to be disrespected
    4. it is a waste of time.
90. The church has established schools in Kenya in order to
    
    1. offer free education
    2. create jobs in the country
    3. get money to build churches 
    4. promote literacy in the country.

SECTION B

ISLAMIC RELIGIOUS EDUCATION

61. Which prophet of Allah was given Taurat?
    
    1. Issa.
    2. Ibrahim.
    3. Musa.
    4. Daud.
62. The angel of Allah who brought wahy to the prophets was called
    
    1. Jibril.
    2. Mikail.
    3. Izrafil:
    4. Ridhan.
63. Which of the following salat does not have rukuu and ujud?
    
    1. Witr.
    2. Janazah.
    3. Taraweh.
    4. Tahajud.
64. Which one is not a sacred month?
    
    1. Rabiul Awwal.
    2. Muharram.
    3. Rajab.
    4. Dhul Qaadah.
65. In which month is swalatul tarawih said?
    1. Rajab.
    2. Shawal,
    3. Muharram.
    4. Ramadhan.
66. Which one is not a forbidden animal in Islam?
    
    1. The strangled animal.
    2. The carcasses.
    3. The animal killed by hunting.
    4. The animal killed by horns.
67. Hiding goods in order to get more profits is called
    
    1. ghush.
    2. hoarding.
    3. usury.
    4. ribaa.
68. Which rite below is not Umrah?
    
    1. Running between swafa and marwa.
    2. Sleeping at mina and muzdalifa. 
    3. Wearing ihraam.
    4. Clipping the hair.
69. The prophet said that whoever is not thankful to people is not thankful to
    1. angels.
    2. the prophets.
    3. Allah.
    4. himself.
70. In shawwal, it is sunnah to fast _____________________________
    
    1. any six days.
    2. the whole month.
    3. the first six days.
    4. the last six days.
71. Which of the following is not among the places that were declared safe when makkah was conquered?
    
    1. People's own houses.
    2. The house of Abu Sufyan.
    3. The holy Kaabah.
    4. The house of Ikrimah.
72. Surah Al-Alaq emphasizes on
    
    1. brotherhood.
    2. peace.
    3. knowledge.
    4. last day.
73. Which one happened in the battle of Badr?
    1. The Quraish who taught muslims how to read were forgiven.
    2. Dead bodies of the Quraish were mutilated.
    3. The prophet punished Suhail who insulted him.
    4. Ony those who paid ransom were forgiven.
74. Which one is not a pillar of Iman?
    
    1. Belief in His angels.
    2. Belief in paradise.
    3. Belief in His books.
    4. Belief in Allah.
75. Prophet Muhammad(p.b.u.h) gave His farewell speech on the
    
    1. 6th Dhul Hijjah.
    2. 9th Dhul Hijjah. C
    3. 10th Dhul Hijjah.
    4. 5th Dhul Hijjah.
76. HIV is not spread through
    
    1. sexual intercourse.
    2. sharing cutting tools.
    3. blood transfusion.
    4. shaking hands with infected person.
77. Who accompanied Musa to Firaun?
    
    1. Harun (A.S)
    2. His wife.
    3. Al-Khidr.
    4. Shuaib (A.S)
78.  In surah Tiyn, Allah swears by the following except
    
    1. Baitul mugaddas.
    2. Olive tree.
    3. Mount Sinai.
    4. Fig tree.
79. Who among the following is exempted from fasting?
    
    1. The wealthy.
    2. Men in wet dreams.
    3. People in Janabah.
    4. Women in Nijas.
80. Which attribute of Allah means the provider?
    
    1. Ar-Raham..
    2. As-Salam.
    3. Ar.Razaq.
    4. Ar-Rahim.
81. Muhammad (SAW) was appointed the messenger of Allah at the age of
    
    1. 25years.
    2. 40years.
    3. 30years.
    4. 63years.
82. Which surah of Qur'an is referred to as the mother of Qur'an?
    
    1. Alaq.
    2. Fatiha.
    3. Ikhlas.
    4. Nas.
83. Salat performed for a dead muslim before burial is known as
    
    1. Janazah.
    2. Kusuf.
    3. Tahajud.
    4. Dhuha.
84. "Read in the name of your lord, who created" This is a verse from surah
    
    1. Fatiha.
    2. Alaq.
    3. Ikhlas.
    4. An-Nas.
85. The special prayer performed during the eclipse of the moon is called
    
    1. dhuha.
    2. kusuf.
    3. istiskai.
    4. khusuf.
86. The fifth pillar of Islam is
    
    1. hajj.
    2. saum.
    3. kalima.
    4. salat.
87. Who among the following prophets of Allah made the blind to see?
    
    1. Musa.
    2. Ibrahim.
    3. Shuaib.
    4. Issa.
88. During the journey of Isra wal-miraj, the prophet was given command for muslims to
    
    1. go for hajj.
    2. pray five times.
    3. fast during Ramadhan.
    4. give zakat.
89. Complete the hadith. "Ritual purity is a sign of ___________________________"
    
    1. goodness
    2. faith
    3. prayers
    4. Islam
90. Lady Khadija was older than the prophet by
    
    1. 20years.
    2. 10years.
    3. 15years.
    4. 40years.

MARKING SCHEME

1. D
2. A
3. A
4. B
5. B
6. C
7. D
8. C
9. A
10. D
11. A
12. C
13. B
14. A
15. C
16. D
17. D
18. C
19. C
20. A
21. B
22. D
23. B
24. A
25. C
26. D
27. B
28. C
29. B
30. C
31. D
32. A
33. C
34. B
35. D
36. A
37. C
38. A
39. D
40. C
41. A
42. D
43. B
44. A
45. B
46. C
47. D
48. C
49. A
50. B
51. C
52. D
53. A
54. D
55. C
56. B
57. A
58. C
59. D
60. A

C.R.E

1. A
2. B
3. D
4. D
5. A
6. C
7. C
8. B
9. C
10. A
11. D
12. C
13. B
14. A
15. C
16. A
17. C
18. D
19. B
20. A
21. B
22. D
23. A
24. D
25. B
26. D
27. C
28. C
29. A
30. D

I.R.E

1. C
2. A
3. B
4. A
5. D
6. C
7. B
8. B
9. C
10. A
11. D
12. C
13. A
14. B
15. B
16. D
17. A
18. A
19. D
20. C
21. B
22. B
23. A
24. B
25. D
26. A
27. D
28. B
29. B
30. A

QUESTIONS

1. A child suffering from anaemia should be fed on food rich in,
   
   1. carbohydrates
   2. calcium
   3. iron
   4. proteins. 
2. Which component of blood transport nutrients to all parts of the body?
   
   1. White blood cells.
   2. Plasma.
   3. Platelets.
   4. Red blood cells.
3. Tuberculosis is caused by
   
   1. bacteria
   2. virus
   3. fluke
   4. germ.
4. In which part of the human digestive system does absorption of water and mineral salts occur?
   
   1. Small intestines.
   2. Colon.
   3. Stomach.
   4. Rectum.
5. To avoid spreading cholera, the person infected should
   
   1. observe cleanliness.
   2. sleep in an isolated place
   3. exercise to lose weight
   4. drink alot of water.
6. Which one of the following is not a correct statement about male reproductive system?
   
   1. Scrotum encloses the testis.
   2. Epididymis stores sperms.
   3. Urethra allows urine only out of the body.
   4. Glands produces fluids.
7. The diagram below shows electric cables left sagging when erecting poles and cables.
   
   The main reason for leaving the cables sagging is to
   
   1. prevent electric shock-
   2. make them visible
   3. allow room for expansion
   4. allow room for contraction.
8. Which one of the following vaccines is administered on lower part of left arm of an infant?
   
   1. BCG
   2. DPT
   3. Anti-polio
   4. Anti-measles.
9. Which animal feed is harvested when it is about to flower and stored in silos when still green?
   
   1. Hay.
   2. Fodder.
   3. Legumes.
   4. Silage.
10. All the following are physical changes that occurs in adolescent girls only except
    
    1. breasts enlarges
    2. hips broaden
    3. experiences wet dreams
    4. experiences menstrual flow.
11. Which one of the following is the best weather for washing clothes and winnowing?
    1. Windy and sunny.
    2. Sunny and calmy.
    3. Windy and rainy.
    4. Calm and windy.
12. Which one of the following animals live partly in water and partly on land, have a moist skin without scales and are cold blooded?
    
    1. Newt.
    2. Lizard.
    3. Chameleon.
    4. Turtle.
13. The following are reasons for preserving food except
    
    1. to be available when out of season
    2. to preserve it from being spoilt 
    3. to reduce wastage
    4. to make it cheap.
14. From the food chain below, tertiary consumers are represented by
    Plants → zebra → lion → vulture
    
    1. Vulture
    2. Plants
    3. Lion.
    4. Zebra.
15. Which part of the plant transports food from the leaves to other parts of the plant?
    
    1. Root
    2. Leaf.
    3. Branch.
    4. Stem.
16. All the following are factors affecting the pitch of a sound except
    
    1. length of the material.
    2. type of material
    3. thickness of the material
    4. colour of the material.
17. The diagram below represents a home made water filter
    
    Which material is represented by letter X?
    
    1. Fine sand.
    2. Charcoal.
    3. Coarse sand.
    4. Pebbles.
18. Which one of the following is not a way of taking care and maintaining simple tools?
    
    1. Proper use of tools.
    2. Cleaning after use.
    3. Sharpening all tools.
    4. Proper storage.
19. One of the following pairs consist of field pests. Which one is it?
    1. Stalkborers and aphids.
    2. Weaver birds and weevils.
    3. Rodents and cutworms.
    4. White-ants and stalkborers:
20. Which one of the following is a use of the component that makes up 0.03% of air in the atmosphere?
    
    1. Burning.
    2. Photosynthesis.
    3. Combustion.
    4. Germination.
21. Which one of the following pairs of processes is as a result of increase in temperature?
    
    1. Melting and freezing.
    2. Freezing and evaporation.
    3. Evaporation and melting.
    4. Condensation and freezing.
22. The diagram below represents a raingauge
    
    Why is part of the raingauge placed 30cm above the ground? To
    
    1. prevent water on the ground from splashing into the funnel
    2. prevent evaporation of collected water
    3. provide firm support
    4. withstand the harsh weather conditions.
23. Lucerne as a constituent of balanced diet to animals is a source of
    
    1. vitamins
    2. proteins
    3. carbohydrates
    4. minerals.
24. All the following are reasons why animals move from one place to another except
    1. to look for food
    2. to escape harsh weather conditions
    3. to run away from friends
    4. to look for shelter.
25. The soil that is best in capillarity also
    
    1. is best in drainage
    2. is best in farming
    3. spreads easily because of it's texture
    4. used in modelling.
26. In which one of the following practices is water re-used?
    
    1. Repairing leaking taps and pipes.
    2. Collecting rain water from the roofs.
    3. Storing water in dams to use in irrigation.
    4. Watering plants with water that has been used to wash vegetables in the kitchen.
27. Which one of the following groups of food stuffs consists of energy giving foods only?
    
    1. Maize, meat, bread.
    2. Chapati, egg, mango.
    3. Bread, green bananas, potatoes.
    4. Green bananas, peas, rice.
28. The highness or lowness of sound is called
    
    1. pitch
    2. volume
    3. mass
    4. sound amplification.
29. The list below consists of sources of light
    
    1. Torch
    2. Sun
    3. Candle
    4. Firefly
    5. Electricity
    6. Lamp
    7. Moon
    8. Glowworm
       Which list consists of natural sources only?
       
       1. i, iv, vi
       2. vii, ii, iii
       3. viii, iv, ii
       4. v, ii, vi,
30. All the following are factors that affect sinking and floating of objects except
    
    1. type of material
    2. shape
    3. weight
    4. size.
31. One of the following is not a safety measure when dealing with electricity. Which one is it?
    
    1. By not touching switches with wet hands.
    2. By not overloading sockets.
    3. By not sheltering under trees when raining.
    4. By not putting wires, pencils and even sticks in sockets,
32. A ruler inside a glass of water appear bend due to
    
    1. refraction
    2. reflection
    3. dispersion
    4. evaporation.
33. Class four learners set up the experiment below to investigate a certain aspect of pressure in liquids
    
    What conclusion could the learners make from the set-up?
    
    1. Pressure in liquids is greatest at the bottom.
    2. Pressure in liquids is equal at the same depth.
    3. Pressure in liquids increases with depth.
    4. Liquids exert pressure in all directions.
34. Which method can best be used to separate rice from a mixture of rice and maize?
    
    1. Winnowing.
    2. Sieving.
    3. Filtering.
    4. Decanting.
35. Which weed has purple and white flowers, yellow fruits and sharp thorns in the stem and leaves?
    
    1. Pigweed.
    2. Sodom apple.
    3. Wandering jew.
    4. Mexican marigold.
36. Which one of the following pairs consists of external animal parasites only?
    
    1. Roundworm and hookworm.
    2. Fleas and tsetse flies..
    3. Liverflukes and ticks.
    4. Fleas and tapeworm.
37. All the following are major components of environment.except
    
    1. water
    2. animals
    3. light
    4. air.
38. The diagram below shows a flower
    
    In which of the labelled parts of a flower does the process of germination of pollen grains take place?
    
    1. X
    2. Y
    3. O
    4. P
39. The following are effects of force except
    
    1. increase speed
    2. stop objects
    3. start motion
    4. change state of matter.
40. Which type of soil erosion causes landslides, not easily noticed and occurs on gentle slopes?
    
    1. Rill.
    2. Sheet.
    3. Gulley.
    4. Splash.
41. Which one of the following is not an importance of water in a diet?
    
    1. Helps in getting rid of waste products.
    2. Helps in making blood.
    3. Helps in digestion.
    4. Helps in provision of proteins.
42. The planet that has visible rings around it is called
    
    1. Saturn
    2. Mercury
    3. Venus
    4. Jupiter.
43. All the following are sources of electricity except
    
    1. georthermal generators
    2. solar energy
    3. bulb
    4. bicycle dynamo.
44. The diagram below represents a lever
    
    Which one of the following shows the correct names of part L, Q and P?
    
    1. Pivot, load, effort.
    2. Fulcrum, effort, load.
    3. Effort, pivot, load.
    4. Load, fulcrum, effort.
45. The main reason why coloured water is used in the construction of a liquid thermometer is to
    
    1. increase its density
    2. increase its expansion
    3. make it visible
    4. make it absorb more heat.
46. Which of the following lists consists of non-magnetic materials only?
    
    1. Cobalt, copper, silver.
    2. Zinc, brass, aluminium.
    3. Silver, chromium, alinico.
    4. Brass, copper, tin.
47. All the following are advantages of friction except
    
    1. sharpening
    2. erasing
    3. produces unwanted heat
    4. walking.
48. When choosing a method of separating a mixture of a liquid and a solid it is important to consider the
    
    1. density of the liquid
    2. weight of the solid
    3. solubility of the.solid
    4. size of particles of solid.
49. Which one of the following best describe the term environment?
    
    1. The home of a human being.
    2. Land and atmosphere.
    3. The surrounding of a living thing.
    4. Living animals and plants.
50. Three of the following are main parts of a sperm except
    
    1. tail
    2. head
    3. nucleus
    4. ovary.

MARKING SCHEME

1. C
2. D
3. A
4. B
5. A
6. C
7. D
8. A
9. D
10. C
11. A
12. A
13. D
14. A
15. D
16. D
17. B
18. C
19. A
20. B
21. C
22. A
23. B
24. C
25. D
26. D
27. C
28. A
29. C
30. D
31. C
32. A
33. D
34. B
35. B
36. B
37. C
38. A
39. D
40. B
41. D
42. A
43. C
44. C
45. C
46. B
47. C
48. D
49. C
50. D