PART I   

Study the map of Sata area and use it to answer questions 1 to 7.

1. The climate of the southern part of Sata area can be described as A
   1. cool and dry.
   2. hot and wet.
   3. hot and dry.
   4. cool and wet.
2. The approximate area in square kilometres of Labu town is
   
   1. 30km²
   2. 25km²
   3. 36km²
   4. 28km²
3. The main economic activity in most parts of Sata area is
   
   1. crop farming.
   2. livestock keeping.
   3. trading.
   4. lumbering.
4. A forest was established in the southern part of Sata area mainly to
   
   1. provide timber in the area.
   2. attract rainfall in the area.
   3. make the landscape beautiful.
   4. protect sources of rivers.
5. Which one of the following areas in Sata area is at the lowest point above sea level
   1. Labu town.
   2. Tea farms.
   3. Cattle dip.
   4. Forest.
6. Land in Sata area generally rises from
   
   1. north.
   2. east.
   3. south.
   4. west.
7. The area covered by the map is a
   
   1. county.
   2. location.
   3. division.
   4. district.
8. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the continent of Africa? It
   
   1. has fifty five continental countries. 
   2. is crossed by the three main tropics.
   3. lies in the northern hemisphere. 
   4. is the largest continent.
9. The following are statements about a type of marriage:
   
   1. A man can marry more than one wife.
   2. A marriage certificate is issued. 
   3. It is conducted by a government official.
      The type of marriage described above is
      1. Christian marriage. 
      2. Islamic marriage. 
      3. civil marriage.
      4. customary marriage.
10. Which one of the following lakes is correctly matched with its formation? Lake
    1. Chad - deposition.
    2. Rukwa - downwarping.
    3. Kivu - volcanicity.
    4. Gambi - faulting.
11. Which one of the following is the main tourist attraction feature around Malindi town?
    1. High class hotels.
    2. Vasco da Gama pillar.
    3. Sandy beaches.
    4. Marine wildlife.
12. Nabongo Mumia collaborated with the British because
    1. he had been employed by the British. 
    2. he wanted protection against the Nandi. 
    3. the British were building a railway line. 
    4. he feared the Arabs.
13. Below are communities that settled in Eastern Africa:
    1. Abagusii
    2. Taita
    3. Chagga
       Which one of the following statements about the communities listed above is true?b They
       1. settled in highland regions.
       2. were ruled by kings.
       3. practised pastoralism.
       4. were long distance traders.
14. The mountains on the floor of the Rift Valley were formed through
    1. faulting.
    2. erosion.
    3. folding.
    4. volcanicity.
15. Which one of the following minerals is correctly matched with the place where it is mined in Kenya?
           Mineral                    Place   
    1. Fluorspar                 Ngomeni
    2. Limestone                Athi river
    3. Diatomite                 Kimwarer
    4. Salt                          Kariandusi
16. Ludwig Krapf came to Eastern Africa in 1844 to
    1. explore the interior.
    2. find the source of river Nile.
    3. spread christianity
    4. find a sea route to India.
17. Which one of the following was a recreational activity among communities in the pre-colonial period?
    1. Farming.
    2. Herding.
    3. Hunting
    4. Wrestling.
18. The leeward side of a mountain receives low rainfall because it
    1. lies at a low altitude.
    2. is far from large water bodies. 
    3. has little vegetation cover.
    4. is sheltered from warm moist winds.
19. Which one of the following combinations consists of trees that grow in the forests of Swaziland?
    1. Pine and eucalyptus.
    2. Podo and mahogany.
    3. Mvule and oak.
    4. Camphor and sapele.
20. When the Ababukusu people fought the British in Kenya, they were led by 
    1. Waiyaki wa Hinga.
    2. Mekatilili wa Menza.
    3. Mukite wa Nameme.
    4. Koitalel arap Samoei.
21. The diagram below shows the formation of a mountain.
    
    Which one of the following mountains was formed through the above process? 
    1. Danakil Alps.
    2. Ruwenzori mountains.
    3. Usambara moutains
    4. Atlas mountains.
22. Which one of the following resulted due to the settlement of Arabs along the coast of Eastern Africa?
    1. Introduction of cloves.
    2. Establishment of mission stations.
    3. Building of railway lines.
    4. Abolition of slave trade.
23. People who live near swamps are likely to suffer from
    1. frequent droughts.
    2. seasonal flooding.
    3. water-borne diseases.
    4. acute soil erosion.
24. Assimilated Africans in Senegal during the French colonial period were allowed to
    1. work and live in France.
    2. marry more than one wife.
    3. practise traditional customs.
    4. buy goods at reduced prices.
25. Pastoral farmers can be supported by the government through
    1. getting loans to buy more livestock. 
    2. fencing grazing lands.
    3. drilling boreholes in pastoral areas. 
    4. exempting them from taxes.
26. Bananas in Uganda are intercropped with
    1. tea.
    2. coffee.
    3. wheat.
    4. cotton.
27. The best way of promoting peace among communities in Kenya is by 
    1. supporting intermarriage.
    2. establishing national schools.
    3. promoting the use of Kiswahili.
    4. respecting the rights of other people.
28. Rapid population increase in Africa has been caused by
    1. introduction of family planning methods. 
    2. rapid expansion of towns.
    3. improvement in healthcare.
    4. increase of jobs in urban centres.
29. Which one of the following groups is made up of rivers that have deltas?
    1. Niger, Nile, Tana.
    2. Senegal, Congo, Athi.
    3. Ruvuma, Zambezi, Orange.
    4. Volta, Sanaga, Gambia.

Use the map of Kenya below to answer questions 30 to 33.  

30. The main benefit of the river project marked N is that it
    
    1. has stopped flooding along river Tana.
    2. produces rice for export.
    3. has created an inland waterway.
    4. is a source of electricity.
31. The main reason for the migration of the communities that used the route marked T was that they
    
    1. were looking for goods to trade.
    2. were looking for better pastures. 
    3. were escaping conflicts.
    4. wanted iron for tool making.
32. The game park marked X is
    
    1. Marsabit.
    2. Sibiloi.
    3. Nasolot.
    4. Samburu.
33. The shaded area marked Z has a high population due to the
    
    1. presence of fish in lake Victoria.
    2. flat relief of the land.
    3. presence of large towns.
    4. availability of high rainfall.
34. Three of the following are causes of lawlessness in the society. Which one is not?
    
    1. Respecting other people's opinions. 
    2. Rejection of election results.
    3. High rate of unemployment.
    4. Misuse of drugs.
35. The Southern Africa Development Community (SADC) was formed to 
    1. promote the use of a common language.
    2. prevent the spread of deserts.
    3. promote trade among member states.
    4. establish a common trading currency. 
36. Petroleum products are transported by pipeline from Mombasa to other towns in Kenya because
    
    1. it costs less than other forms of transport.
    2. there is an oil pipeline from Mombasa.
    3. it reduces accidents on the roads.
    4. it creates employment in the country.
37. Who among the following is a member of a county assembly?
    
    1. County commissioner.
    2. Speaker.
    3. Governor.
    4. Senator.
38. Which one of the following combinations is made up of cold currents only?
    1. Guinea and Somali.
    2. Sumali and Canary.
    3. Benguela and Aguhlas.
    4. Canary and Benguela.
39. The collaboration of the Maasai and the British during the colonial period in Kenya led to
    
    1. settlement of Europeans in Maasai land. 
    2. opening of schools in Maasai land.
    3. construction of a railway line.
    4. employment of Maasai youth in the army.
40. Which one of the following groups is made up of Bantu communities of Central Africa? A
    1. Venda, Zulu, Xhosa.
    2. Chagga, Banyoro, Taita. 
    3. Bemba, Bakongo, Balunda.
    4. Agikuyu, Aembu, Ameru.
41. Televisions are not commonly used in rural areas in Kenya mainly because
    
    1. television sets are expensive."
    2. most rural areas do not have electricity.
    3. most people in rural areas are illiterate. 
    4. rural areas have poor roads.
42. Acacia and baobab trees are commonly found in areas with
    1. savannah vegetation. 
    2. desert vegetation.
    3. moutain vegetation.
    4. temperate vegetation.
43. The diagram below represents a weather instrument.
    
    The part marked K contains
    1. mercury.
    2. kerosene.
    3. water.
    4. alcohol.
44. Which one of the following is the main problem facing inland fishing in Africa?
    1. Competition from foreign fishing vessels. 
    2. Water plants growing in lakes.
    3. Overfishing.
    4. Inadequate market for fish.
45. Which one of the following places in Eastern Africa is correctly matched with the crop grown there?
           Place              Crop    
    1. Kaffa        -     bananas
    2. Mbeya     -      coffee
    3. Kenana    -     sugarcane
    4. Kigezi      -      sisal
46. A school motto is important because it
    1. encourage leamers to work hard.
    2. makes learners pass school tests. 
    3. shows the direction to a school.
    4. outlines the rules of a school.
47. Nelson Mandela promoted unity in South Africa by
    1. fighting against apartheid.
    2. forming African National Congress (ANC)
    3. leading South Africa to independence.
    4. appointing different races in the government.
48. Pineapple canning in Thika is an example of
    1. a processing industry.
    2. an assembling industry. 
    3. a manufacturing industry. 
    4. a service industry.
49. Low temperatures in some places along the equator are influenced by
    1. high rainfall. 
    2. dense forests. 
    3. high altitude.
    4. strong winds.
50. Below are problems found in urban centres:
    1. Decay of moral values.
    2. Traffic congestion on roads.
    3. High rates of unemployment.
    4. Increase in crime.
       Which combination consists of social problems?
       1. i and ii
       2. i and iv
       3. ii and iii
       4. iii and iv
51. Which one of the following groups is made up of Plain Nilotes?
    1. Shilluk, Dinka, Nuer.
    2. Sandawe, Sanye, Dahalo. 
    3. Sabaot, Nandi, Dorobo.
    4. Jie, Samburu, Turkana.
52. Before the coming of Europeans to Eastern Africa, the Baganda people were ruled by
    1. emperors.
    2. kings.
    3. chiefs.
    4. council of elders.
53. Which one of the following is a social right? Right to
    1. education.
    2. vote
    3. own property.
    4. work.
54. Standard eight learners of Malezi primary school visited a game park. They saw some armed people in the park. What was mainly being done by the arned people?
    1. Charging entry fee to the game park.
    2. Protecting wild animals from poachers. 
    3. Protecting tourists from wild animals.
    4. Taking tourists around the park.
55. Below are statements about a traditional leader in Kenya:
    1. He traded with the coastal Arabs.
    2. He treated diseases
    3. He foretold future events.
       The person described above is
       1. chief Kivoi. 
       2. Nabongo Mumia. 
       3. Masaku.
       4. Laibon Lenana.
56. Highways have been built in Kenya to bypass major towns mainly to
    1. reduce road accidents.
    2. reduce air pollution in towns.
    3. create jobs in the country.
    4. reduce traffic congestions in towns. 5
57. Poultry farming in Kenya is mainly faced by the problem of
    1. inadequate market for poultry products. 
    2. high cost of controlling diseases.
    3. lack of good roads in farming areas.
    4. decrease in land.
58. When Kenyans attend national day celebrations, it shows that they are
    1. patriotic.
    2. obedient.
    3. hardworking.
    4. humble.
59. Which one of the following duties is performed by a county assembly? 
    1. Maintaining law and order.
    2. Supervising county projects.
    3. Formulating county laws.
    4. Appointing a county governor. 
60. County assembly sittings are headed by the 
    1. speaker.
    2. clerk.
    3. governor.
    4. county commissioner.

PART  II 

SECTION A

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION

61. God showed that the seventh day was a special one during creation when He 
    1. finished all creation.
    2. blessed it and rested.
    3. created human beings in His image.
    4. blessed all the creation.
62. Which one of the following commands did God give Noah after the flood? 
    1. Have many children so that your descendants will live all over the earth. 
    2. Leave your father's home and go to a country that I will show you.
    3. Remove your shoes for you are standing on a holy ground.
    4. offer your only so as a sacrifice.
63. "Iam who Iam, this is my name forever" (Exodus 3:14-15). God spoke these words to
    
    1. Abraham.
    2. Jacob.
    3. Moses.
    4. Isaac.
64. Which one of the following events took place during the Exodus?
    
    1. The Israelites attacked Jericno.
    2. The covenan' box was made.
    3. Saul was appointed king.
    4. Deborah served as a judge.
65. When Hannah prayed at Shiloh, she asked God to give her
    
    1. long life.
    2. wisdom.
    3. wealth.
    4. a son.
66. Which one of the following reasons explains why king Saul wanted to kill David?
    
    1. David had been appointed king.
    2. Saul had an evil spirit.
    3. David had become famous.
    4. David had refused to marry his daughter.
67. In which one of the following ways did king Solomon turn away from God? He
    
    1. married many wives.
    2. refused to build a temple.
    3. allowed the worship of false gods.
    4. acquired a lot of wealth.
68. Prophet Jeremiah was mistreated by being 
    1. thrown into a dry well.
    2. put in a lions' den.
    3. put in prison.
    4. beaten by the king.
69. When there was famine in Israel, prophet Elijah went to live with a widow in 
    1. Shunem.
    2. Zarephath.
    3. Jericho.
    4. Moab.
70. The son that Zechariah and Elizabeth was given a name by
    
    1. Mary. 
    2. angel Gabriel.
    3. Joseph.
    4. Simeon.
71. Who among the following people ordered for a census to be done in Israel? 
    1. Augustus.
    2. Herod.
    3. Pilate.
    4. Quirinius.
72. Which one of the following was a teaching of Jesus during the sermon on the mount? 
    1. 'Give to Ceasar what belongs to him.'
    2. 'Happy are the pure in heart, they will see God'
    3. 'He who is the least will be the greatest." 
    4. 'I am the way, the truth and life."
73. The woman whom Jesus asked for water at a well was a
    1. Levite.
    2. Syrian.
    3. Samaritan.
    4. Moabite.
74. Which one of the following miracles of Jesus shows that He came as a universal saviour?
    
    1. Healing a paralysed man.
    2. Healing the Roman officer's servant. 
    3. Raising Lazarus.
    4. Calming a storm.
75. The parable of the sower teaches Christians
    1. how the word of God grows in them. 
    2. to plant good seeds in their farms. 
    3. to take good care of their farms.
    4. to help people in need.
76. Who among the following people said that Jesus was a good man after He died on the cross?
    
    1. The repentant thief.
    2. An army officer.
    3. Pontious Pilate.
    4. Joseph of Arimathea
77. 'Unless I see the scars and put my fingers on those scars and my hand in His side, I will not believe' (John 20:25). These words were said by
    
    1. Peter.
    2. Nathaniel.
    3. Andrew.
    4. Thomas.
78. The Jews were surprised on the day of Pentecost when the disciples
    
    1. performed miracles.
    2. sang and praised God.
    3. preached to the crowd.
    4. spoke in foreign languages.
79. The story of Ananias and Sapphira teaches Christians to be
    
    1. humble
    2. patient
    3. honest
    4. obedient
80. When Paul and Silas were in jail in Philippi, they were
    1. mourning. 
    2. fasting.
    3. sleeping.
    4. singing.
81. When Peter went to the town of Joppa, he 
    1. baptized an Ethiopian Eunuch. 
    2. preached to Comelius. 
    3. raised Tabitha.
    4. healed a lame beggar.
82. Which one of the following beliefs about God in traditional African communities is true? God
    1. provides for His creation.
    2. is served by angels.
    3. finished creation in six days...
    4. lives in heaven.
83. In traditional African communities, shrines are places where
    1. ancestors are buried.
    2. initiation ceremonies are done.
    3. the youth are taught.
    4. sacrifices are offered.
84. When there is good harvest in traditional African communities, people thank God by
    1. offering food sacrifices in shrines. 
    2. giving food to travellers.
    3. selling surplus food.
    4. using foodstuffs to pay dowry.
85. Christians show obedience to lawful authority by
    1. praising their leaders.
    2. paying taxes.
    3. praying for their leaders.
    4. going to church.
86. The church promotes good health among
    1. offering free medical care. people in Kenya by
    2. establishing hospitals.
    3. visiting sick people.
    4. preaching to the sick.
87. Meshack, a standard eight pupil, helped an old woman carry a heavy basket. This shows that Meshack
    1. knew the woman.
    2. was a strong person.
    3. was a kind person.
    4. was related to the woman.
88. Maria, who is your deskmate, keeps on getting ill. The best action for you to take is to
    1. pray and advise her to go to hospital.
    2. change your sitting position.
    3. tell her to transfer to another school.
    4. tell her to stay at home.
89. The best way for parents to teach their children good behaviour is by 
    1. setting good examples. 
    2. preparing family laws.
    3. punishing children who misbehave. 
    4. taking their children for counselling.
90. Christians can benefit the community during their free time by
    1. singing in church. 
    2. reading the Bible.
    3. watching Christian programs.
    4. visiting the elderly.

SECTION B:

ISLAMIC RELIGIOUS EDUCATION

61. A person who fasts has two pleasures. One during  _________________________ food.
    
    1. twaam.
    2. iftaar.
    3. walima.
    4. suhur. 
62. Which of the following vices is condemned in surah Al-Falaq?
    
    1. Witchcraft.
    2. Backbiting.
    3. Stealing.
    4. Adultery.
63. All the following are recomanended preparations for reading the holy Qur'an except
    
    1. taking wudhu.
    2. a siwak.
    3. facing qibia.
    4. not putting it on the bare ground.
64. Which form of knowledge sticks best in mind according to surah Alaq? Knowledge 
    1. of pictures.
    2. of the pen.
    3. from far away.
    4. of cramuning.
65. Allah (SW) was not happy and even cursed Abu Lahab because he
    
    1. joined Abraham to destroy the holy kaaba.
    2. refused to join Islamic faith.
    3. dispersed the prophet's congregation. D
    4. killed baby girls and burried others alive.
66. What is the meaning of Taqwa in Islamic faith?
    
    1. Reliance on Allah.
    2. Obedience to Allah.
    3. The fear of God.
    4. Belief in Allah.
67. A Muslim who believes in Qadar should always say ____________________________ when making future plans.
    1. fii amaanillah
    2. mashallah
    3. astaghfirullah
    4. inshallah
68. After Takbiratul Ihraam, there follows
    1. seven Takbiras. 
    2. surah Al-Fatiha 
    3. bending for Rukuu. 
    4. the first khutba.
69. In which of the following villages did the hypocrites of Uhud in the Muslim army turn back and disappeared? A
    1. Abwa.
    2. Taif.C
    3. Ashawt.
    4. Khaibar.
70. Which of the following ibaadaats cleanses off sins as free as a new born beby? 
    1. Ablution.
    2. Hajj
    3. Jum'a to Jum'a
    4. Fast of sittat shawwal.
71. "Al-Eal dil Ameen" is a description that was used to praise a city called 
    1. Makkat mukarrama.
    2. Jerusalem.
    3. Madinat munawwara.
    4. Bethlehem.
72. Muslims who reach at miqat to start hajj activities respond to Allah's call by uttering
    1. tahniq.
    2. takbir.
    3. taibia
    4. tahtiil.
73. Which prophet of Allah was killed by being cut into pieces?
    1. Zakariya.
    2. Daud.
    3. Yahya.
    4. Yusuf.
74. In which festival should Muslims first attend prayers before eating anything?
    1. Idd-ui-Fit
    2. Milad-un-Nabii.
    3. Idd-ul-hajj.
    4. Isra-wai-miraj.
75. Prophet Musa (A.S) fled to Madyan after running away from _______________________ home.
    1. Firaun's
    2. Shuaib's
    3. Egypian's
    4. an Israelite's
76. The present city of security where all Muslims today go for Hajj was the first settlement of
    1. Ibrahim's family.
    2. Adam's family.
    3. Muhammad's family 
    4. Nuh's family.
77. The names "Allah" and "Prophet" are introduced into the ear of a newbom baby for the first time through
    1. adhaan.
    2. tashahhud.
    3. tahniq.
    4. iqama.
78. The angel of Allah (SW) charged with the responsibility to welcome those rewarded at the gates of paradise is
    1. Malik.
    2. Jibril.
    3. Israfil.
    4. Ridhwaan.
79. Muslims may locate and face Qibla for prayers by the help of all the following ways except
    1. use of a compass direction tool.
    2. use of the sunrise and sunset.
    3. use of a physically available mosque.
    4. automatic obvious imagination.
80. Which of the following things is the same in both Jum'a and Idd prayers?
    1. The time of performing.
    2. When to say khutba.
    3. The number of rakaats prayed.
    4. Classification as sunna or fardh.
81. Nadhir ibaadaats are
    1. the self promise to Allah. 
    2. performed by few Muslims. 
    3. performed as punishment.
    4. those performed at night. 
82. Which one of the following was not an advice given to prophet Mohammad by Jibril (AS)?
    1. To stay knowing that one day He will die.
    2. To love whom He loves but know that one day they'll separate.
    3. He will be judged in all His deeds. 
    4. Not to walk on earth with pride.
83. The prophet assured Muslims that whoever shahada will be his or her last words before death will
    1. enter paradise.
    2. be resurrected.
    3. be heavier than the earth and all in it.
    4. be rewarded beyond imagination.
84. The level of buried treasures and precious minerals the one should have in order to qualify to give out zakat is called
    1. tarka.
    2. nisab.
    3. quut.
    4. qulatein.
85. The two swalats which have two adhasns in Islam are
    1. Idd-ul-fitr and Idd-ul-hajj.
    2. kusuf and khusuf.
    3. taraweh and tahajjud.
    4. fajr and Jum'a.
86. Who was the secretary at the Hudaibiyaa treaty agreements and writings?
    1. Zaid bin Thaabit.
    2. Abubakr swiddiiq.
    3. Abu Sufian.
    4. Ali bin Abi Talib. 
87. Edat is observed
    1. in the event of a husband's death and twalaq.
    2. when a lady becomes seriously sick.
    3. if the couple never had Nikah ceremony.
    4. by all virgin ladies before marriage.
88. Which of the following attributes of Allah is wrongly matched with its meaning?, 
    1. Al-maswawwir - the dominant.
    2. Al-Baar - the originator.
    3. Al-Khaaliq - the creator.
    4. A-Razzaaq - the provider.
89. What do Muslims celebrate on the first day on shawwaal?
    1. Eid-ul-fitr. 
    2.  Milad-un-nabii. C
    3. Aqiqa.
    4. Khitma.
90. Muslims are allowed to reduce the number of rakaats in salaat
    1. dhuhr. 
    2. musaafir.
    3. janaaza.
    4. maktuba.

MARKING SCHEME

1. D
2. A
3. A
4. D
5. C
6. C
7. A
8. B
9. C
10. C
11. C
12. B
13. A
14. D
15. B
16. C
17. D
18. D
19. A
20. C
21. D
22. A
23. C
24. A
25. C
26. B
27. D
28. C
29. A
30. D
31. B
32. B
33. D
34. A
35. C
36. A
37. B
38. D
39. A
40. C
41. B
42. A
43. A
44. C
45. C
46. A
47. D
48. A
49. C
50. B
51. D
52. B
53. A
54. B
55. C
56. D
57. B
58. A
59. C
60. A

C.R.E

61. B
62. A
63. C
64. B
65. D
66. C
67. C
68. A
69. B
70. B
71. A
72. B
73. C
74. B
75. A
76. B
77. D
78. D
79. C
80. D
81. C
82. A
83. D
84. A
85. B
86. B
87. C
88. A
89. A
90. D

I.R.E

61. D
62. A
63. C
64. B
65. C
66. C
67. D
68. A
69. C
70. B
71. A
72. C
73. A
74. C
75. A
76. A
77. A
78. D
79. D
80. C
81. A
82. D
83. A
84. B
85. D
86. D
87. A
88. A
89. A
90. B

QUESTIONS

1. When light moves from one medium to another, it
   
   1. bounces.
   2. bends.
   3. splits.
   4. is absorbed.
2. The materials which allow some light to pass through 
   1. improve privacy.
   2. enable one to see clearly.
   3. are said to be transparent.
   4. are used to make car windscreens.
3. In order to increase the rate at which a substance dissolves in a solvent, one shouldn't
   
   1. increase the temperature of the solute.
   2. stir the mixture thoroughly.
   3. increase the surface area of the solute.
   4. increase the temperature of the solvent.
4. Which statement below does not describe cumulus clouds? They
   1. are dark grey in colour. 
   2. are white and cotton like. 
   3. form high in the sky.
   4. have a flat base.
5. Which substance below has a definite mass but no definite shape?
   
   1. Flour.
   2. Stone.
   3. Office glue.
   4. Steam.
6. Which one of the following is not a necessary condition for seeds to germinate?
   1. Moisture.
   2. Soil.
   3. Air.
   4. Warmth.
7. The pests that burrow in the maize plant while it is growing are
   1. cutworms.
   2. stalkborers.
   3. aphids.
   4. weaver birds.
8. Which one of the following is the best method for Lucy to use to control weeds on a very small piece of land with vegetables?
   
   1. Using herbicides.
   2. Uprooting. 
   3. Digging out.
   4. Burning them.
9. The loudness or softness of sound is its
   
   1. vibration.
   2. volume.
   3. pitch.
   4. echo.
10. The diagram below shows the composition of air.
    
    The part which makes bulbs glow without blowing is labelled
    
    1. i
    2. ii
    3. iii
    4. iv
11. The vaccines given to a baby at birth prevents them against
    
    1. polio and tuberculosis.
    2. measles and yellow fever. 
    3. pertussis and tetanus. 
    4. diphtheria and measles.
12. Which one of the following is not a reason for preserving food? To 
    1. avoid wastage of the food.
    2. sell the food when prices are favourable.
    3. consume the food when nutrients are plenty.
    4. keep the food for future use.
13. Which one of the following human intestinal worms can one get by eating raw meat?
    1. Hookworms.
    2. Pinworms.
    3. Roundworms.
    4. Tapeworms.
14. Which one of the following methods of preserving food is modern?
    1. Smoking.
    2. Using honey.
    3. Canning.
    4. Drying.
15. Which of thee following sets of foodstuffs is suitable for a child suffering from marasmus?
    1. Apples, eggs, oranges, meat. 
    2. Beans, kales, mangoes, sweet potatoes.
    3. Rice, bananas, maize, cabbage.
    4. Sausages, potatoes, chicken, cooked bananas.
16. Which one of the following is not an effect of heat on matter?
    1. Expansion.
    2. Melting.
    3. Condensation.
    4. Evaporation.
17. The following are activities that take place during breathing:
    1. Volume of the chest cavity decreases.
    2. Ribs move upwards and outwards.
    3. Lungs shrink.
    4. The diaphragm muscles relax.
       Which of the activities take place during breathing out?
       1. i
       2. ii
       3. iii
       4. iv
18. The diagram below shows the approximate percentages of the gases that make up air.
    
    Which one of the following processes does not require the part labelled L?
    1. Combustion.
    2. Germination.
    3. Making plant food.
    4. Respiration.
19. When the arrow head of a windvane points to the south, it shows that wind is the blowing from
    1. east.
    2. west.
    3. north.
    4. south.
20. Which one of the following levers has the position of the load between the effort and the fulcrum when in use?
    1. Wheelbarrow.
    2. Claw hammer.
    3. Spade.
    4. Crowbar.
21. Which one of the following statements  is not correct about liquids?
    1. Some liquids expand when frozen.
    2. Liquids contract when heated. 
    3. Liquids expand when heated.
    4. Liquids expand more than solids when heated.
22. Which one of the following is not a way or reducing the force that opposes motion?
    1. Making treads.
    2. Using rollers.
    3. Streamlining.
    4. Using grease and lubricating oil.
23. Which of the pairs below shows major non-living components of the environment?
    1. Light and sound.
    2. Animals and plants.
    3. Air and water.
    4. Soil and heat.
24. Which one of the following is not a source of electric current?
    
    1. Car battery.
    2. Generator.
    3. Water fall.
    4. Wind turbines.
25. Which one of the following does not lead to air pollution?
    
    1. Smoking bhang in public. 
    2. Spraying farm chemicals and aerosols.
    3. Vehicle exhaust fumes.
    4. Use of excessive fertilizers.
26. Which of the following statements is not correct about separation of mixtures?
    1. Picking is used to separate big solid particles.
    2. Winnowing is suitable for separating a mixture of light and heavy solid particles.
    3. Sieving separates a mixture of small and large solid particles.
    4. A mixture of magnetic materials can be separated using a magnet.
27. The illustration below shows how matter changes from one state to another.
    
    A pair of processes that requires reduction of heat is
    1. M and P.
    2. N and 
    3. M and N
    4. P and Q
28. Which one of the following mammals does not give birth to a live young one?
    1. Whale.
    2. Bat.
    3. Platypus.
    4. Nile perch.
29. The diagram below shows the solar system.
    
    Which one of the following shows the planets marked X and Y?
    

    	X	Y
    A.	Earth	Neptune
    B.	Earth	Saturn
    C.	Venus	Jupiter
    D.	Mars	Saturn

30. A metallic nail sinks in water while a metallic ship floats on water. This is due to the difference in
    1. material.
    2. shape.
    3. size.
    4. mass.
31. The diagram below shows a flower.
    
    Which of the labelled parts attracts insects?
    
    1. W
    2. X
    3. Y
    4. Z
32. Which of the following animals are kept mainly for mutton production? 
    1. Sheep and pigs.
    2. Goats and sheep.
    3. Cattle and camels.
    4. Goats and camels.
33. Which one of the following is not a method of rotational grazing?
    1. Zero grazing.
    2. Tethering.
    3. Paddocking
    4. Strip grazing.
34. The most appropriate method of controlling the type of erosion commonly experienced along the roofs is
    1. mulching.
    2. contour farming.
    3. terracing.
    4. planting grass.
35. The diagram below shows an experiment conducted by Grade five pupils.
    
    They realized that water did not enter the glass. The best conclusion they made from the experiment was that
    1. water exerts pressure.
    2. water occupies space.
    3. air has mass.
    4. matter occupies space.
36. Which one of the following is the function of fibre in the diet? Fibre
    1. helps in digestion of food.
    2. adds more nutrients to the body.
    3. helps in the removal of undigested food.
    4. helps in absorption of digested food.
37. Which one of the following is not likely to increase the pressure of a liquid in a container?
    1. Increasing the amount of liquid.
    2. Reducing the diameter of the container.
    3. Using a narrow container.
    4. Raising the container.
38. Which one of the following plants does not manufacture its own food?
    1. Moulds.
    2. Fern.
    3. Grass.
    4. Cactus.
39. The following are the processes of germination of a seed but not in order:
    1. Emergence of the plumule. 
    2. Absorption of water and air. 
    3. Bursting of the testa. 
    4. Emergence of the radicle.
       Which one of the following is the correct order?
       1. iii, iv, i, ii
       2. ii, iii, iv, i
       3. i, iv, iii, ii
       4. iii, ii, i, iv
40. Which one of the following pairs of diseases can be controlled through draining away stagnant water?
    1. Bilharzia and malaria.
    2. Bilharzia and typhoid.
    3. Cholera and typhoid.
    4. Cholera and malaria.
41. Which one of the following is a way of controlling the spread of HIV/AIDS among the youth?
    1. Using condoms.
    2. Abstinence.
    3. Sticking to one faithful uninfected partner.
    4. Creating awareness.
42. In which of the following is the force of friction least needed?
    1. Closing the door.
    2. Walking downhill.
    3. Writing on the chalkboard.
    4. Stopping a speeding motor cycle.
43. Which one of the following groups has animals with similar characteristics?
    1. Beetle, scorpion, ant.
    2. Mite, wasp, spider.
    3. Termite, tick, grasshopper
    4. Wasp, ant, housefly
44. The diagram below shows an excretory organ.
    
    Which pair of substances is removed by this organ?
    1. Water and carbondioxide.
    2. Water and urea.
    3. Urea and salts.
    4. Lactic acid and salt.
45. Which of the following prevents a baby from shock and bumps?
    1. Umbilical cord.
    2. Placenta.
    3. Amniotic sac.
    4. Amniotic fluid.
46. Which of the following components is found in all environments?
    1. Water.
    2. Air.
    3. Heat.
    4. Plants.
47. A pupil set up an experiment below to investigate a certain component of heat.
    
    The pupil did not make correct conclusion from the experiment because 
    1. he used a small candle.
    2. he used a metal box instead of a wooden box.
    3. wrong placement of the candle.
    4. wrong placement of the burning paper.
48. Which statement about vertebrates is correct?
    
    1. Fish and amphibians are warm blooded.
    2. Mammals and birds give birth to live young ones.
    3. Reptiles and birds have internal fertilization.
    4. Fish and birds have external fertilization.
49. Which pair of blood vessels is correctly matched with the nature of blood in it?
    

    	Deoxygenated	Oxygenated
    A.	Aorta	venacava
    B.	Venacava	pulmonary artery
    C.	Pulmonary artery	aorta
    D.	Pulmonary vein	aorta

50. The diagram below shows a simple lever.
    
    The simple machine works the same way as
    1. a crowbar
    2. an inclined plane 
    3. wheelbarrow
    4. spade

MARKING SCHEME

1. B
2. A
3. A
4. A
5. C
6. B
7. B
8. B
9. B
10. A
11. A
12. C
13. D
14. D
15. B
16. C
17. B
18. C
19. D
20. A
21. B
22. A
23. C
24. C
25. D
26. D
27. D
28. C
29. B
30. B
31. A
32. B
33. A
34. D
35. D
36. C
37. D
38. A
39. B
40. A
41. B
42. A
43. D
44. A
45. D
46. B
47. C
48. C
49. C
50. A

Soma vifungu vifuatavyo. Vina nafasi 1 mpaka 15. Kwa kila nafasi umepewa majibu manne hapo. Chagua jibu lifaalo zaidi kati ya uliyopewa.

Tunapotia guu katika __1__ __2__, walimu wetu wapendwa wanaendelea kutupa__3__huku tukifunzwa mengi kama vile __4__ ambavyo hutoa taarifa kuhusu vitenzi, vivumishi na hata vielezi. Huku hayo yakiendelea, tumepata __5__ kufahamu akisami pia, __6__, __7__ ambayo ni sehemu moja ya saba. Kwa moyo wa shukrani, __8__ kuwapa kongole mzomzo.

Kristina alipojiangalia tena__9__ kioo, aligundua kuwa uso wake uliokuwa __10__na kufanya mabaka sasa ulianza kurudisha unyevuunyevu wa awali. __11__ mauti ya mume wake yapata majuma mawili __12__ yalimdhoofisha, __13__ kuwa __14__. Kwa vyovyote vile, ilimpasa kuyazika ya kale na kuendelea na safari ya maisha japo kwa kuuma __15__.

Kutoka swali la 16 hadi 30, jibu swali kulingana na maagizo   

16. Chagua maelezo yaliyo sahihi. 
    1. Arafa: ujumbe wa maandishi unaotumwa kwa simu.
    2. Kipepesi: chombo cha kutuma na kupokea barua.
    3. Kikokotoo: chombo cha kutuma ujumbe kwa sauti.
    4. Mtandao: mfumo wa mawasiliano kupitia tarakilishi.
17. Chagua silabi.
    
    1. Sh
    2. Dha
    3. Ng
    4. Th
18. Upi ni usemi halisi wa sentensi ifuatayo?
    Mwalimu kwa hasira aliwaamuru wanafunzi wote wapige magoti na kumaliza kazi yao ya ziada. Mwalimu
    
    1. alifoka, "Pigeni magoti na mmalize kazi yenu ya ziada!"
    2. alisema, "Mpige magoti na mmalize kazi yenu ya ziada."
    3. alifoka, "Malizeni kazi yenu ya ziada na mpige magoti!"
    4. alisema wanafunzi wote wapige magoti na wamalize kazi yao ya ziada.
19. Tambua sentensi yenye kivumishi cha idadi.
    
    1. Mtumwa huyu ni mtiifu sana. 
    2. Kitabu cha kasisi si cheusi.
    3. Jino langu linauma sana.
    4. Kiatu cha kwanza hakifai.
20. Ni jozi gani iliyokosewa?
    
    1. Skrubu - bisibisi.
    2. Mpini - jembe.
    3. Mchi - kinu.
    4. Mkufu - kipini.
21. Ni kiunganishi gani kisichoweza kukamilisha sentensi ifuatayo?
    Kauleni aliadhibiwa vikali ________________________ kufukuzwa shuleni.
    
    1. licha ya
    2. fauka ya
    3. bighairi ya
    4. pamoja na
22. Tambua sentensi yenye a unganifu.
    1. Cha walimu ni safi.
    2. Kitabu cha mwalimu kimeanguka.
    3. Msipoziba nyufa mtajenga kuta.
    4. Nilimwona alipokuwa akienda maktabani.
23. Ni kundi gani lenye nominoambata?
    1. Maji, marashi, mate.
    2. Njugumawe, batamzinga, askarikanzu.
    3. Safu ya milima, umati wa watu, kichala cha matunda.
    4. Kenya, Juma, Agosti.
24. Nomino maskani huwa katika ngeli gani?
    
    1. PAKUMU
    2. YA-YA
    3. U-YA
    4. LI-YA
25. Paka huyu ndiye alaye buku katika wingi ni paka hawa
    
    1. ndiyo walaye buku.
    2. ndio walao buku.
    3. ndiyo walao mabuku.
    4. ndio walao mabuku.
26. Tambua sentensi yenye kielezi.
    1. Katika debe tanna maji.
    2. Kilichosimama ni hiki.
    3. Niliitika kwa sauti.
    4. Mtoto aliyesimama kando ya mto ni mwoga.
27. Banati ni kwa msichana kama vile ___________________________ ni kwa kaptura.
    
    1. kinyasa
    2. bombo
    3. mvuli
    4. mshipi
28. Chagua nahau iliyo tofauti kimaana.
    1. Aga dunia
    2. Kata kamba
    3. Konga roho
    4. Enda na ulelengoma
29. Kamilisha methali: Wema
    
    1. haiozi.
    2. haigombi.
    3. hauozi.
    4. haukomi.
30. Kitendawili:
    Mzungu analala na ndevu ziko nie.
    
    1. Mwiko.
    2. Hindi.
    3. Mvi.
    4. Unga

Soma kifungu kifuatacho kisha ujibu maswali 31 hadi 40.

Hadithi! Hadithi! Hapo zamani za kale kabla ya majabali kukauka, kuku na mwewe walikuwa marafiki wa dhati. Usahibu wao ulikuwa ule wa kufa kuzikana. Waliishi pamoja kwa miaka na mikaka. Walishirikiana na kusaidiana katika lolote lililotokea, la furaha na la majonzi.

Walifanya kazi pamoja. Kila mmoja alijitahidi kadiri ya uwezo wake. Walishirikiana kama kinu na mchi. Bega kwa bega, walifanya kazi zao. Mwewe alijitwika jukumu la kulisha familia zote mbili naye kuku alikuwa na jukumu la kuwalinda watoto wao. Kuku alihakikisha wameshiba na kutulia.

Ndege hawa waliishi kwa amani na utulivu bila kukumbwa na tatizo lililowashinda kutatua. Urafiki wao ulifanya wakati mwingine walale njaa ili watoto wao washibe.

Siku moja walipata barua ya ualishi kutoka kwa ndege wenzao. Karamu ya kukata kwa shoka ilikuwa iandaliwe. Mwewe aliwatayarisha wanawe kwa sherehe. Kuku aligundua kuwa vifaranga wake walikuwa na kucha ndefu zilizowaaibisha. Hivyo, aliamua kumwomba mwewe wen.be. Mwewe alimpa wembe bila kusita kisha akamwambia, "Hakikisha kwamba umerudisha wembe wangu mara moja."

Kuku alitekeleza wajibu wake kwa haraka. Muda si muda, familia hizo mbili zikang'oa nanga kwa furaha. Karamun, kila mmoja na watoto wake alibugia mapochopocho. Vinywaji vilikuwa tele. Baada ya sherehe, walirejea nyumbani.

Siku iliyofuata, mwewe alimtuma mtoto wake kwa kuku kuuchukua wembe ili wanyolewe. Kuku alipigwa na butwaa alipogundua kwamba wembe wa mwewe haukuwapo. Wasiwasi ulimvamia mara moja. Huku na kule, alianza kuchakurachakura. Jasho lilimtiririka lakini wapi! Juhudi zake hazikumfaa.

Mtoto wa mwewe aliripoti haya kwa mama yake. Bila kungoja, mwewe alifika nyumbani kwa kuku. "Aka! Hujui wewe kuwa wembe huo ni mmoja kama moyo? Lazima nitwae fidia. Nitawala vifaranga wako mmoja mmoja hadi unirejeshee wembe wangu." Maneno hayo yalimchoma kuku moyoni kama mkuki. Tangu siku hiyo, kuku huchakurachakura huku na kule akiutafuta wembe wa mwewe. Naye mwewe huruka juu akiwasaka vifaranga wa kuku.

31. Aya ya kwanza inaudokezea kwamba
    
    1. urafiki wa mwewe na kuku ulikuwa wa unafiki.
    2. mwewe na kuku walitengana sana.
    3. urafiki wa ndege hawa haukuwa wa ukweli.
    4. kuku na mwewe walipendana sana
32. Neno lililopigiwa mstari mwishoni mwa aya ya kwanza lina maana sawa na
    
    1. huzuni.
    2. ufanisi.
    3. furaha.
    4. ugomvi.
33. Katika kifungu ulichosoma, ni nani aliyekuwa akitafuta chakula?
    
    1. Kuku.
    2. Mwewe.
    3. Wote wawili.
    4. Watoto wao.
34. Mwewe na kuku walishirikiana kama kinu na mchi. Methali inayoafikiana na hali hii ni
    
    1. bendera hufuata upepo.
    2. baniani mbaya kiatu chake dawa.
    3. kidole kimoja hakivunji chawa.
    4. adui mpende.
35. Ni nini ambacho kinaonyesha kuwa ndege hawa waliwajali watoto wao?
    1. Kuwatafutia chakula kila siku. 
    2. Kuwatetea kila siku.
    3. Kulala njaa ili watoto washibe.
    4. Kwenda karamuni pamoja.
36. Barua waliyoipata mwewe na kuku
    1. iliandikiwa watoto wao.
    2. iliwaalika katika karamu.
    3. iliwafurahisha sana.
    4. iliwaletea chakula.
37. Ni kweli kuwa
    1. mwewe alikuwa mwaminifu.
    2. kuku hakuwapenda watoto wake.
    3. watoto wa mwewe walikuwa wachafu.
    4. kuku alikuwa mzembe.
38. zikang'oa nanga..." ni sawa na
    1. zikaanza safari.
    2. zikakamilisha safari.
    3. zikafika sherehení.
    4. zikasherehekea.
39. Kulingana na kifungu ulichokisoma, ni nini kilichomtia kuku wasiwasi alipogundua kuwa wembe haukuwapo? 
    1. Kuvunjika kwa urafiki wao.
    2. Kunyakuliwa kwa watoto wake.
    3. Onyo alilokuwa amepewa awali.
    4. Kukosa kuhudhuria karamu.
40. Tabia ya mwewe ya kuruka juu ili kuwasaka vifaranga wa kuku inaonyesha tabia ya
    
    1. kuonyesha mapenzi. 
    2. kutoa onyo.
    3. ulafi.
    4. kulipiza kisasi.

Soma kifungu kifuatacho kisha ujibu maswali 41 hadi 50.

Je, ni mnyama yupi mwenye nyayo kama za kasuku, awezaye kutazama pande zote kwa wakati mmoja na mwenye ulimi wenye kasi isiyomithilika? Si ndege, si chura bali ni kinyonga. Kwa makini ukichunguza vidole vya kinyonga, utagundua kuwa, kiaina, vinafanana na vya kasuku. Kila mguu unavyo vidole vitano vyenye upekee wa kuyakamata matawi sawasawa. Aidha, kila kidole kinao ukucha, hivyo, kuwafanya vinyonga wakwezi hodari.

Si miguu yao tu ambayo huajabiwa katika miili yao. Kwa mtazamo wa makini, itadhihirika kuwa katika kila moja ya macho yao, ukope wa juu na wa chini hukaribiana kiasi cha kuacha nafasi ya mboni pekee. Kinyume na binadamu, kinyonga huweza kutazama na kuona pande mbili tofauti mara moja, kwa wakati mmoja. Hili humwezesha kuona kwa nyuzi mia tatu na sitini bila tatizo. Vile vile, wao huwa na uwezo mkubwa wa kuona hususan wakiyaelekeza macho yao yote mawili katika azma moja. Wana uwezo wa kuwaona wadudu wadogo wadogo hata wakiwa mbali. Hili huwasaidia sana wakati wa mawindo.

Ili kulipiza katika utaratibu wao wa kutembea, vinyonga huwa na ndimi ndefu ajabu. Wakati mwingine, ndefu kuliko urefu wa miili yao kwa jumla! Yasemekana kuwa ndimi hizo zao huwa na kasi kiasi kuwa ni vugumu binadamu kuufuatilia mwondoko huo kwa macho. Ni kwa vipi ambavyo ndimi zao huwa na kasi hivyo? Hakika, ndimi zao huwa kama upote na mshale au manati. Jinsi ambavyo upote hurusha mshale ndivyo ambavyo ulimi wa kinyonga hutoka na kuingia kinywani mwake na hivyo kumsaidia kulinasa windo lake.

Talanta nyingine maarufu ya kinyonga ni uwezo wake wa kubadilibadili rangi ya ngozi yake. Anao uwezo wa kujibadili hadi rangi zote za upinde wa mvua na hata zambarau, waridi, nyeusi na hudhurungi. Uwezo huu huwasaidia kujificha kwa kujifananisha na mazingira waliyomo. Hata hivyo, sababu kuu ya uwezo huu huwa kudhibiti kiwango cha joto mwilini na kuelekeza hisia zao. Wao hutumia mabadiliko haya ya rangi kuonyesha hali ya kutamalaki na utetezi katika maeneo wanamoishi. Mabadiliko haya ya rangi aidha hutumika kuwavutia vinyonga wa jinsia tofauti.

Vinyonga wengi hupatikana Afrika. Hata hivyo, matabaka mengine machache yamewahi kushuhudiwa kwingineko kama vile Asia na pia majangwani. Maadamu vinyonga hawana masikio, wao hutumia hisia za mirindimo katika mazingira yao. Hayo yote ya kuajabia kuhusu kinyonga humfanya awe mwanajamii wa kuvutia mno miongoni mwa wanyama jamii ya mamba na mburukenge.

41. Ni gani hapa si kweli kuhusu kinyonga?
    
    1. Anao ulimi wenye kasi ya juu.
    2. Nyayo zake hufanana na za kasuku.
    3. Huweza kutazama pande nyingi kwa wakati mmoja.
    4. kwa kiwango fulani, hufanana na chura.
42. Badala ya kutumia neno lililopigiwa mstari katika aya ya kwanza, mwandishi angetumia
    
    1. kenge.
    2. lumbwi.
    3. ngwena.
    4. nyoka
43. Ni nini huwafanya vinyonga kuwa wakwezi hodari?
    
    1. Miili yao miembamba.
    2. Vidole vyao vitano. 
    3. Kucha zao.
    4. Utaratibu wao katika kutembea.
44. Kwa maoni yako, nafasi za mboni hubakia kwa nini? Ili
    
    1. kudhibiti kiwango cha nuru. 
    2. kuwawezesha vinyonga kuona. 
    3. kutenganisha kope za juu na za chini.
    4. kuajabiwa na mwanadamu.
45. Ni uwezo gani wa vinyonga ambao mwanadamu anaweza kuiga?
    1. Kutazama pande kadhaa kwa wakati mmoja. 
    2. Kasi ya ulimi.
    3. Kujibadili rangi.
    4. Utaratibu katika kutembea.
46. Je, ni gani hapa si sababu ya vinyonga kujibadili rangi?
    
    1. Kutambulisha hisia zao.
    2. Kupima viwango vyao vya jotomwili.
    3. Kujitofautisha na mazingira wanamoishi.
    4. Kutafuta wenza.
47. Mwandishi ametaja mambo mangapi ya kuajabia kuhusu kinyonga?
    
    1. Manane
    2. Saba
    3. Matano
    4. Sita
48. Sababu kuu ya kinyonga kubadilibadili rangi ni
    
    1. kujifananisha na mazingira.
    2. kuvutia jinsia tofauti. 
    3. kuonyesha hisia zao.
    4. kudhibiti jotomwili.
49. Mwandishi ametaja uwezo gani wa vinyonga unaowafanya kuwa maarufu?
    
    1. Uwezo wao wa kukwea miti. 
    2. Kasi ya ndimi zao.
    3. Uwezo wao wa kujibadili rangi.
    4. Urefu wa ndimi zao.
50. Kulingana na msemaji, vinyonga huweza kupatikana katika mabara yapi?
    
    1. Majangwani na misituni.
    2. Asia na Marekani.
    3. Asia, Afrika, Marekani, misituni na majangwani.
    4. Asia na Afrika.

INSHA

Umepewa dakika 40 kuandika insha yako. Andika insha ya kusisimua ukianzia kwa maneno haya:

Baada ya kupata maakuli, kila mmoja wetu alielekea ukumbini ili kupata burudani ya muziki. Kufunba na kufumbua,......................................................................

MARKING SCHEME

1. D
2. C
3. A
4. D
5. B
6. A
7. C
8. B
9. D
10. C
11. B
12. B
13. A
14. B
15. A
16. A
17. B
18. A
19. D
20. D
21. C
22. B
23. B
24. B
25. D
26. C
27. B
28. C
29. C
30. B
31. D
32. A
33. B
34. C
35. C
36. C
37. D
38. A
39. A
40. D
41. D
42. B
43. C
44. B
45. D
46. C
47. D
48. D
49. C
50. D

Read the passage below. It contains blank spaces numbered 1 to15. For each blank- space, choose the best answer from the choices given.

There are many cases of youngsters.__1__ are usually left alone at home. Their parents have __2__ jobs that take most of their time. Such children get used to staying with no one to __3__ them. __4__ does anyone help them manage their time. Therefore they __5__
engaging in activities in which they can easily harm __6__.

There are some whose parents __7__ house helps to __8__ for their children. These house helps more __9__  than not are underage girls who have, __10__ capacity to raise children. Eventually this __11__ not to be a solution.

However, a solution seems to, __12__ found with the establishment of student care centres. They are open to students of all __13__. They provide guided activities that ensure that students are engaged with not only educational fun activities __14__ fun activities like games and sports. For a monthly charge, both working couples and single parents can __15__ their kids in these centres.

In questions 16 to 18, choose the best alternative to complete the sentences.  

16. He would have sent me a card
    
    1. if I would have informed him.
    2. had I informed him.
    3. unless I informed him.
    4. if I informed him.
17. He would rather work indoors,
    1. wouldn't he?
    2. won't he?
    3. would he?
    4. didn't he?
18. What ______________________ at the moment?
    
    1. are you doing
    2. did you do
    3. will you do
    4. have you done

In questions 19 and 20, choose the plural form of the underlined sentences.  

19. A piece of furniture was stolen from the store. Pieces of
    
    1. furnitures was stolen from the stores.
    2. furniture were stolen from the stores.
    3. furnitures were stolen from the stores.
    4. furnitures were stolen from the store.
20. The traveller had a heavy luggage and a fishing equipment. The
    
    1. travellers had heavy luggages and fishing equipment.
    2. traveller had heavy luggages and fishing equipments.
    3. travellers had heavy luggages and fishing equipments.
    4. travellers had heavy luggage and fishing equipment.

In questions 21 and 22, select the odd one out.  

21.  
    1. vest.
    2. clothes.
    3. blouse.
    4. shorts.
22.  
    1. beans. 
    2. peas.
    3. maize.
    4. cereals.

In questions 23 to 25, select the best alternative to fill the blank spaces.     

23. The _____________________ passengers were taken to the hospital after the accident.
    
    1. wounded
    2. injured
    3. hurt
    4. knocked
24. Some traditional ______________________ have been outlawed.
    
    1. practices
    2. practice
    3. practise
    4. practises
25. The clothes were ________________________ in the sun to dry.
    
    1. hanged
    2. hung
    3. hunged
    4. hunging

Read the passage below and answer questions 26 to 38.

Last night, I attended a concert that will forever be etched in my memory. The concert featured the one and only Taylor Swift, and it was held at the grandiose Staples Centre in Los Angeles. The arena was teeming with ecstatic fans of all ages, eagerly awaiting the arrival of the pop queen.

As the lights dimmed, the crowd erupted in a deafening roar. The stage was bathed in a spectrum of colours, revealing the shape of the one and only Taylor Swift as she emerged from the shadows. She was dressed in a dazzling silver jumpsuit that sparkled under the spotlights, showing confidence and unrestrained energy. She opened the show with her hit song "Shake it off" and the crowd sang along with her in perfect harmony, their voices blending together to create a symphony of excitement.

The concert was a journey through time, featuring a perfect blend of Taylor Swift's old and new songs. Each time she sang a song from her newest album, the crowd erupted in a frenzy, jumping and dancing along with her. She had a few guest appearances, including one of her close friends who sang with her on stage. Together, they ignited the crowd with their harmony, moves and melodious voices.

Throughout the concert, Taylor Swift had a magnetic stage presence, engaging with the crowd, sharing stories about the inspiration behind some of her songs, and even inviting a few lucky fans on stage to sing and dance with her. The crowd was in awe as they got to experience that magical moment with her.

The concert was a feast for the senses, with an enormous screen behind the stage displaying a mesmerizing array of visuals and videos that perfectly matched the songs being played. The stage was adorned with a spectacular array of bright lights and pyrotechnics that added an extra layer of drama and excitement to the performance.

As the concert came to a close, Taylor Swift closed the show with her hit song "Love Story" and the crowd sang along with her, their voices rising to the rafters. The air was filled with a cascade of confetti, creating a magical and unforgettable moment. It was a night of pure magic, and I couldn't help but feel awestruck by Taylor Swift's undeniable talent and electrifying stage presence.

26. The concert can be described using all the following words except
    1. historical.
    2. memorable.
    3. unforgettable.
    4. historic.
27. The word 'ecstatic' can be replaced with all the following words except
    1. overjoyed. 
    2. rowdy. 
    3. thrilled.
    4. jubilant.
28. Why did the crowd erupt into a loud noise?
    
    1. The stage was brightly decorsted. 
    2. The singer had arrived on stage. 
    3. The music had already started. 
    4. They saw Taylor Swift in the darkness.
29. Which of the following statements is true?
    
    1. "Shake it off" was the first song sang.
    2. The crowd didn't know the singer's songs.
    3. The fans sang before the singer. 
    4. The crowd sang with confidence.
30. Why was the concert a journey through time?
    
    1. A mix of new and old songs were performed.
    2. Taylor sang songs done by other singers.
    3. The crowd was singing along with her.
    4. She took a lot of time singing her songs.
31. We can conclude that
    
    1. Taylor's new song was unknown.
    2. Taylor's new song was very popular.
    3. "Love story" was an old song.
    4. Taylor's old songs were not popular at all.
32. Taylor Swift and her close friend endeared themselves to the crowd by all the following except
    
    1. their moves.
    2. their sweet voices.
    3. creating a good harmony. 
    4. their friendship..
33. Taylor's performance was made magnetic by
    1. engaging with the crowd. 
    2. inviting the crowd in stage.
    3. leaving the stage to dance with the crowd.
    4. composing new songs in stage.
34. Why do you think some fans were described as "lucky"? They
    
    1. won the dancing competition. 
    2. heard the inspiration in the songs.
    3. got an opportunity many did not.
    4. saw Taylor dancing on stage.
35. The stage was decorated with 
    1. balloons and pyrotechnics.
    2. bright lights and pyrotechnics. 
    3. balloons and confetti.
    4. posters and ribbons.
36. The big screen behind the stage showed
    
    1. fascinating visuals and videos of the songs played.
    2. past videos of Taylor Swift.
    3. visuals and videos of Taylor's new songs.
    4. the events of the concert as they happened.
37. We can say the crowd sang the song 'Love Story'
    
    1. emotionally.
    2. loudly.
    3. softly.
    4. melodiously.
38. What makes us believe that the writer enjoyed the concert? He
    
    1. was awestruck by Taylor's beauty and personality.
    2. sang and danced along with Taylor Swift.
    3. was fascinated by Taylor's stage presence and talent.
    4. felt bad when the concert drew to an end.

Read the passage below and answer questions 39 to 50.   

Pleasure is something that is enjoyed by all living beings, but it is through our sense organs that we humans truly experience it. The sense of smell, sight, hearing, touch, and taste each bring their own unique pleasures. Senses are important when it comes to enjoying food, as we are able to appreciate the flavours and aromas that make our meals so enjoyable. Otherwise food would be monotonous, nothing to look forward to. The natural beauty of the world, such as ice-capped mountains and thundering waterfalls, can also bring great pleasure to our senses.

However, there is a higher order of pleasure that can be derived from reading. While external things bring pleasure to our senses, reading brings pleasure to the mind. The more and widely one reads and develops the mind, the greater the pleasure that can be derived from reading. It is through reading that we can truly become a "full" person, as it allows us to expand our knowledge, imagination and understanding of the world.

Reading is the end product of writing, and without something written, there would be nothing to read. Therefore, good writing is essential for good reading. It is only humans that can write, that is, put their thoughts and ideas into a written form. Writing has been an important aspect of human existence and it is through writing that we are able to preserve our thoughts and ideas. The world of literature is vast and there is something for everyone to read.

Nowadays, there is a wide variety of reading material available for all tastes. A scholar may read serious literature to expand their knowledge while another person may read a magazine or picture book to pass the time. The material chosen will depend on one's mood, reading background, time available and purpose. A teenager may enjoy romance stories, while an older person may prefer books on philosophy and religion. Some may prefer poetry, while others may prefer non-fiction.

Reading is a habit that can be enjoyed and cultivated. A personal library can be built to suit one's interests. There are a wide variety of kinds, such as poetry, novels, fiction, drama, and letters. Biographies and autobiographies also make up a large portion of literature. The greatest advantage of reading is that one can come across great minds, regardless of whether one agrees with what is being read or not. There is no harm in having an opinion on the writer, but it is not necessary to publish it. Reading can be enjoyed in a comfortable and quiet environment, with soft lighting and a comfortable seat.

In conclusion, reading is a habit that can be enjoyed and cultivated for a lifetime. It is through reading that we can expand our knowledge and imagination, and it can be uplifting. While reading is not everything in life, it can bring a sense of dignity and pleasure.

39. According to the first paragraph,
    1. all living things have sense organs.
    2. all living things enjoy pleasure.
    3. pleasure is only enjoyed by humans.
    4. all living things experience pleasure.
40. It is true to say that
    1. all sense organs have a similar pleasure.
    2. some sense organs are more unique.
    3. all sense organs bring about one pleasure.
    4. each sense organs causes a unique pleasure
41. To enjoy food, which senses are particularly useful?
    
    1. Sight and taste.
    2. Smell and taste.
    3. Smell and touch.
    4. Sight and smell.
42. The word 'monotonous' as used in that passage means the same as
    
    1. sour.
    2. colourless.
    3. boring.
    4. stale
43. Reading is different from other sources of pleasure because it 
    1. brings pleasure to the mind. 
    2. is more enjoyable than other activities.
    3. makes one imagine things.
    4. brings pleasure to external senses.
44. We can conclude that
    
    1. writing comes before reading. 
    2. reading comes before writing.
    3. reading and writing occur together.
    4. either reading or writing can come first.
45. All the following are benen's of reading. Which one is not? One 
    1. expands imagination.
    2. broadens knowledge. 
    3. develops physically.
    4. understands the world.
46. The word 'vast' means the same as all the following words except
    
    1. massive.
    2. extensive.
    3. immense.
    4. narrow.
47. The choice of reading material depends on all the following except 
    1. mood.
    2. purpose.
    3. reading habits.
    4. available time.
48. The most important benefit of reading is that one is able to
    
    1. agree with the writer's opinion.
    2. publish their own books.
    3. form an opinion of the writer. 
    4. come across great minds.
49. Romantic stories read by teenagers can be classified as
    
    1. poetry.
    2. fiction.
    3. biography.
    4. letters.
50. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
    
    1. Kinds of reading materials.
    2. Benefits of pleasure.
    3. The pleasure of reading.
    4. How to develop reading habits.

MARKING SCHEME

1. C
2. A
3. B
4. C
5. A
6. C
7. B
8. A
9. B
10. D
11. B
12. C
13. D
14. B
15. A
16. B
17. A
18. A
19. B
20. D
21. B
22. D
23. B
24. A
25. B
26. A
27. B
28. B
29. C
30. A
31. B
32. D
33. A
34. C
35. B
36. A
37. B
38. C
39. B
40. D
41. B
42. C
43. A
44. A
45. C
46. D
47. C
48. D
49. B
50. C

QUESTIONS

1. What is five million, sixty eight thousand, four hundred and fifty in numerals?
   
   1. 5 608 450
   2. 5 068 450
   3. 5 680 450
   4. 5 068 405
2. Round off 68 964 to the nearest thousands
   1. 68 900
   2. 70 000
   3. 68 000
   4. 69 0003.
3. What is the total value of digit 9 in the number 798 643?
   
   1. 900
   2. 900 000
   3. 90 000
   4. 9000
4. What is ⁴/₅, ⁹/₁₁, ¾ and ⁷/₈, arranged in a descending order?
   1. ⁷/_8, ⁹/_11, ⁴/_5, ¾
   2. ⁷/_8, ⁴/_5, ⁹/_11,  ¾
   3. ⁹/_11, ⁷/_8, ¾, ⁴/₅
   4.  ¾, ⁴/_5, ⁹/_11, ⁷/₈ 
5. What is the next number in the pattern? 
   29, 38, 47, 56, ___________________. 
   
   1. 78
   2. 87
   3. 67
   4. 65
6. Which one of the following numbers is  divisible by 11?
   
   1. 548 997
   2. 527 142
   3. 511 488
   4. 571 432
7. The area of a square plot of land is 0.1849 hectares. What is the length of one side of the plot in metres?
   
   1. 0.43m
   2. 4.3m
   3. 43m
   4. 430m
8. What is 28. 568 to the nearest tenths?
   
   1. 28.6
   2. 29.0
   3. 28.57
   4. 28.5
9. Janet bought the following items from a shop:
   3 packets of maize flour@sh. 160.00
   1½ kg of greengrams @sh. 80.00 per kg
   2 bars of soap for sh. 230.00
   4 eggs@sh. 15.00
   How much should she give the shopkeeper to get a balance of a one hundred shilling note?
   
   1. Sh. 890.00
   2. Sh. 1 010.00
   3. Sh. 1 000.00
   4. Sh. 990.00
10. What is the place value of digit 4 in the number 1 485 632?
    
    1. Millions
    2. Hundreds of thousands
    3. Tens of thousands
    4. Thousands
11. What is the LCM of 18, 24 and 36?
    1. 108
    2. 6
    3. 72
    4. 96
12. What is the value of:
    0.95 + 13.8 − 0.08 + 0.7?
    1. 15.37
    2. 13.57
    3. 15.73
    4. 13.75
13. In a cereal store, there were 600 bags of maize. A lorry transported 45 bags on each trip. How many bags did the lorry transport in the last trip?
    1. 13
    2. 25
    3. 30
    4. 15
14. What is the value of:
    5³/₈ +1½ of 1¹/₆ ÷ 1³/₄?
    
    1. 5³/₄
    2. 6³/₈
    3. 8³/₅
    4. 4³/₁₀
15. In an animal census carried out in a certain park, the number of gazelles was 5 848 and that of buffaloes was 1 246 less than the number of gazelles. The number of wildebeest was half the total number of gazelles and buffaloes. What was the total population of the animals in the park?
    
    1. 15 675
    2. 5 225
    3. 10 641
    4. 18 468
16. A rectangular plot of land measures 85 metres long and 55 metres wide. The land was fenced using four strands of barbed wire. What was the total length of the barbed wire used?
    
    1. 280 metres
    2. 4 675 metres
    3. 1 120 metres
    4. 18 700 metres
17. A matatu arrived at Kisumu from Nyeri on Thursday at 0430hrs. If the journey took 8¾, hours, on which day and time did the matatu depart from Nyeri? 
    1. Wednesday, 7.45am
    2. Wednesday, 7.45pm
    3. Thursday, 1. 15am
    4. Thursday, 1.15pm
18. In the figure below, line AB is parallel to DC. Lines EF and PQ are transversal lines.
    
    Which of the following statements is true?
    1. Angle (k = m) (corresponding angles)
    2. Angles (t = u) (vertically opposite angles)
    3. Angles (m = u) (alternate angles) 
    4. Angles (v + t) = 180° (co-interior angles)
19. The table below shows the quantity of milk in litres delivered by a farmer for one week. The amount of milk delivered on Friday is not indicated.
    

    Day of the week	Mon	Tue	Wed	Thur	Fri	Sat	Sun
    Amount in litres	60	75	50	67	___	50	68

    The average amount of milk delivered that week was 65 litres. What was the amount of milk delivered on Friday?
    1. 85ℓ
    2. 65ℓ
    3. 75ℓ
    4. 95ℓ
20. The following are properties of a quadrilateral:
    1. All sides are equal.
    2. Diagonals are equal and bisect each other at 90°
    3. Interior angles add up to 360°
    4. Each interior angle is a right angle.
       Which of the following properties describe a rhombus?
       1. i, iv
       2. ii, iv
       3. i, iii
       4. ii, iii
21. The parallel lines of a trapezium are 36cm and 28cm. The perpendicular distance between the parallel lines is 22cm. Calculate the area of the trapezium.
    1. 740cm²
    2. 704cm²
    3. 1 008cm²
    4. 792cm²
22. Simplify: 3(4p − 3q) + 2(2p − q)
    1. 16p − 7q
    2. 16p + 11q
    3. 16p + 7q
    4. 16p − 11q
23. A map is drawn to a scale of 1:20 000. What is the distance of a road which is 35cm on the map in kilometres?
    1. 7km
    2. 70km
    3. 700km
    4. 0.7km
24. Ronaldo, Messi and Mbappe scored goals for their team during a football match. Ronaldo scored k goals while Messi scored twice as many goals as Ronaldo. Mbappe scored two goals more than Messi. How many goals were scored altogether by the players?
    1. 5k − 2
    2. 2k + 2
    3. 5k + 2
    4. 3k − 2
25. What is the value of 2 (k − b)
                                           t
    when t = 4, b = t +1 and k = 2t?
    1. 1¼
    2. 1½
    3. 1¹/₈
    4. 1¹/₃
26. Construct triangle ABC in which line AB=7cm, BC= 5cm and angle ABC = 120°. Join line A to C. Draw a perpendicular bisector of line AB and let the bisector meet line AC at K. Measure the distance KC.
    1. 6.2cm
    2. 10.5cm
    3. 6.6cm
    4. 2.6cm
27. An open cylindrical tank has a radius of 3.5 metres and a height of 1.5 metres. The inside of the tank was painted. What area of the tank was painted?
    1. 71.5m²
    2. 57.75m²
    3. 110m²
    4. 38.5m²
28. In the year 2022, the number of pupils in a school was 1 200. In 2023, the number of pupils increased by 40%. How many pupils are there?
    1. 480
    2. 1 608 
    3. 720
    4. 1 680
29. The figure below represents a plot of land bounded by two straight edges and two semicircles. Three strands of wire were used to fence the plot. 
    
    What was the length of the wire used?(Take π = ²²/₇)
    
    1. 0.94km
    2. 2.82km
    3. 940km
    4. 2 820km
30. A company sold 4.5 tonnes of sugar in 2kg packets. How many packets were sold?
    
    1. 2 500
    2. 225
    3. 250
    4. 2250
31. The diagram below represents a block  of wood, a cuboid in shape.
    
    Calculate the surface area of the block.
    
    1. 15 232cm²
    2. 9 452cm²
    3. 69 360cm²
    4. 12 320cm² 
32. Onyango paid sh. 1 452 for an item after getting sh. 198 as a discount. What percentage discount did he get?
    
    1. 13.6%
    2. 14.2%
    3. 12%
    4. 15%
33. A cylindrical container has a radius of 14cm and a height of 80cm. How many litres of water can it hold when full?
    1. 4.928ℓ
    2. 49.28ℓ
    3. 492.8ℓ
    4. 49 280ℓ
34. The diagram below represents a plot of land which is parallelogram in shape.
    
    What is the area of the plot in Ares?
    1. 360
    2. 432
    3. 180
    4. 270
35. Christopher deposited sh. 160 000 in bank that earned simple interest at the rate of 8% p.a. How much money was in his account at the end of 18 months?
    1. Sh. 23 040
    2. Sh. 19 200
    3. Sh. 183 040
    4. Sh. 179 200
36. Kirimi used a ladder to climb to the top of a wall. He placed the bottom of the ladder 10 metres away from the wall. The ladder touched the wall at a height of 24 metres. What was the length of the ladder?
    1. 34 metres
    2. 32 metres 
    3. 26 metres
    4. 40 metres
37. Irene bought a hen for sh. 400. After a few months, she sold it for sh. 560. Calculate the percentage profit made.
    1. 28⁴/₇%
    2. 40%
    3. 20%
    4. 14²/₇%
38. Musau and Mutiso shared some money in the ratio of 5:3. The amount of money shared was sh. 120 000. How much did Mutiso receive?
    
    1. Sh. 80 000
    2. Sh. 40 000
    3. Sh. 75 000
    4. Sh. 45 000
39. The marked price of TV set was sh. 48 500. Wanjala bought it on hire purchase by paying a deposit of sh. 15 000 and eight equal monthly instalments of sh. 5 000 each. How much more did he pay on hire purchase?
    1. Sh 6 500
    2. Sh 5 500
    3. Sh 7 500
    4. Sh 8 500
40. The production of beans in a farm decreased from 1 800 bags in year 2015 to 1 500 bags in the year 2016. What was the ratio decrease?
    1. 1:6
    2. 6:5
    3. 5:6
    4. 5:1
41. 12 men can complete digging a shamba in 20 days. How many days can it take to dig the same shamba if 2 men fail to turn up?
    
    1. 120 days
    2. 24 days
    3. 16²/₃ days
    4. 100 days
42. Construct triangle PQR in which line PQ=5.5cm, PR= 6cm and angle PQR = 60°. Draw a circle that touches the vertices of the triangle. Measure the radius.
    1. 2.7cm
    2. 4.3cm
    3. 1.5cm
    4. 3.5cm
43. A salesman earns a commission of 12% in every sales of goods above sh. 10 000. How much did he earn if he sold goods worth sh. 250 000?
    1. Sh. 28 800
    2. Sh. 2 880
    3. Sh. 30 000
    4. Sh. 3 000
44. The pie chart below shows the number of cars, pickups, lorries and vans assembled at Nairobi Factory in one month.The factory assembled 120 pickups. How many vans were assembled?
    
    The factory assembled 120 pickups. How many vans were assembled?
    1. 270
    2. 360
    3. 330
    4. 1080
45. The table below shows inland postal charges for letters.
    

    Weight of the letter	Sh.	Cts
    Up to 20g Over 20g to 50g 55 Over 50g to 100g Over 100g to 250g Over 250g to 500g Over 500g to 1 kg Over 1 kg to 2kg	31  55  86  113  145  193  224	00  00  00  00  00  00  00

    Patrick posted two letters each weighing 100g and another one weighing 1.8kg. How much did he pay at the post office?
    1. Sh. 310.00
    2. Sh. 450.00
    3. Sh. 337.00
    4. Sh. 396.00
46. A motorist driving at a speed of 80km/hr was expected to arrive in time in town B, 300km away. After driving for 1½ hours, the car got a puncture and it took 15 minutes to change the wheel. At what speed did he drive after changing the wheel if he had to arrive at the expected time?
    1. 100km/hr
    2. 90km/hr
    3. 120km/hr
    4. 80km/hr
47. In the figure below, ABC and ADE are straight lines. Line AB = BD = BC. Angle BDA = 55°
    
    What is the measure of angle CDE?
    
    1. 110°
    2. 60°
    3. 70°
    4. 90°
48. Which one of the following statements is true about the number of faces and edges of an open cuboid? It has 
    1. 5 faces and 12 edges. 
    2. 6 faces and 12 edges.
    3. 5 faces and 8 edges.
    4. 8 faces and 12 edges.
49. Decrease sh. 600 by 17%
    1. Sh. 702.00
    2. Sh. 617.00
    3. Sh. 498.00
    4. Sh. 716.00
50. The travel graph drawn below shows Oticno's journey from town A to town B. a distance of 500km
    
    Calculate the average speed for the whole journey.
    1. 75km/hr
    2. 62½km/hr
    3. 80½km/hr 
    4. 90km/hr